Correct Participle Translation

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[BIBLEDRB]John 1:46[/BIBLEDRB] which in parsed Greek reads
και G2532 CONJ εμβλεψας G1689 G5660 V-AAP-NSM τω G3588 T-DSM ιησου G2424 N-DSM περιπατουντι G4043 G5723 V-PAP-DSM λεγει G3004 G5719 V-PAI-3S ιδε G1492 G5657 V-AAM-2S ο G3588 T-NSM αμνος G286 N-NSM του G3588 T-GSM θεου G2316 N-GSM
and - he looked - to the - Jesus - walking - he says - do see - the - lamb - of the - God
1998 Lithuanian
Išvydęs einantį Jėzų, jis tarė: “Štai Dievo Avinėlis!”
set eyes/see-nom.m.s.past. - walk-acc-m.s.pres. - Jesus-acc. - he-nom. - states-3past - There!-inj. - lamb-nom - God-gen
having set eyes on walking Jesus, he stated “there! the Lamb of God!”
My Lithuanian:
Ir pažvelgąs Ježui vaikščiojant, jis sako „Pamatyk, Dievo Avinėlis!”
cnj part-nom.s.m dat part-special-past pro-nom. verb-3-pres n-nom-s.m. n-nom.-s.-m.
which give my translation:
And having looked to Jesus walking, he says “Do see, the Lamb of God”

now the NAB has
and as he watched Jesus walk by, he said, “Behold, the Lamb of God"
the ESV:
and he looked at Jesus as he walked by and said, “Behold, the Lamb of God!”
the NRSV:
and as he watched Jesus walk by, he exclaimed, “Look, here is the Lamb of God!”

Note that my translation and the DRB translation are essentially identical except for some synonyms while the Lith1998/NAB/ESV/NRSV all suffer from changing the timing of the participle (looked at) to the same time as that of the main verb (say) which has been changed in tense to a past tense verb, which in the Greek is present tense as it is in the Latin and my translation(s) have him looking to Jesus before he says the phrase. Why is it that Jerome translated it right into Latin and the moderns are mistranslating this? It isn’t just this passage. It happens elsewhere and it is bad scholarship caused by a lack of knowledge on how participles are used in fully declined IE languages. (The 1998 Lithuanian NT translation was done in in the US and it essentially a translation out of the English translations). Can we get our translators to use the following rules:

Tense Subject Translation
present nominative while (present participle)
present other(dative) as subject (dat.) (present participle)
past (aorist, etc) nominative having (past particple)
past (aorist,etc.) other(dative) after subject (da.t) (past participle)
 
[BIBLEDRB]John 1:46[/BIBLEDRB] which in parsed Greek reads
και G2532 CONJ εμβλεψας G1689 G5660 V-AAP-NSM τω G3588 T-DSM ιησου G2424 N-DSM περιπατουντι G4043 G5723 V-PAP-DSM λεγει G3004 G5719 V-PAI-3S ιδε G1492 G5657 V-AAM-2S ο G3588 T-NSM αμνος G286 N-NSM του G3588 T-GSM θεου G2316 N-GSM
and - he looked - to the - Jesus - walking - he says - do see - the - lamb - of the - God
1998 Lithuanian
Išvydęs einantį Jėzų, jis tarė: “Štai Dievo Avinėlis!”
set eyes/see-nom.m.s.past. - walk-acc-m.s.pres. - Jesus-acc. - he-nom. - states-3past - There!-inj. - lamb-nom - God-gen
having set eyes on walking Jesus, he stated “there! the Lamb of God!”
My Lithuanian:
Ir pažvelgąs Ježui vaikščiojant, jis sako „Pamatyk, Dievo Avinėlis!”
cnj part-nom.s.m dat part-special-past pro-nom. verb-3-pres n-nom-s.m. n-nom.-s.-m.
which give my translation:
And having looked to Jesus walking, he says “Do see, the Lamb of God”

now the NAB has
and as he watched Jesus walk by, he said, “Behold, the Lamb of God"
the ESV:
and he looked at Jesus as he walked by and said, “Behold, the Lamb of God!”
the NRSV:
and as he watched Jesus walk by, he exclaimed, “Look, here is the Lamb of God!”

Note that my translation and the DRB translation are essentially identical except for some synonyms while the Lith1998/NAB/ESV/NRSV all suffer from changing the timing of the participle (looked at) to the same time as that of the main verb (say) which has been changed in tense to a past tense verb, which in the Greek is present tense as it is in the Latin and my translation(s) have him looking to Jesus before he says the phrase. Why is it that Jerome translated it right into Latin and the moderns are mistranslating this? It isn’t just this passage. It happens elsewhere and it is bad scholarship caused by a lack of knowledge on how participles are used in fully declined IE languages. (The 1998 Lithuanian NT translation was done in in the US and it essentially a translation out of the English translations). Can we get our translators to use the following rules:

Tense Subject Translation
present nominative while (present participle)
present other(dative) as subject (dat.) (present participle)
past (aorist, etc) nominative having (past particple)
past (aorist,etc.) other(dative) after subject (da.t) (past participle)
I think it would be better if you did your own lessons. And if this isn’t a class assignment good luck getting some busy scholar to do this for you. So why are you so interested? 🤷.
 
[BIBLEDRB]John 1:46[/BIBLEDRB] which in parsed Greek reads
και G2532 CONJ εμβλεψας G1689 G5660 V-AAP-NSM τω G3588 T-DSM ιησου G2424 N-DSM περιπατουντι G4043 G5723 V-PAP-DSM λεγει G3004 G5719 V-PAI-3S ιδε G1492 G5657 V-AAM-2S ο G3588 T-NSM αμνος G286 N-NSM του G3588 T-GSM θεου G2316 N-GSM
and - he looked - to the - Jesus - walking - he says - do see - the - lamb - of the - God
1998 Lithuanian
Išvydęs einantį Jėzų, jis tarė: “Štai Dievo Avinėlis!”
set eyes/see-nom.m.s.past. - walk-acc-m.s.pres. - Jesus-acc. - he-nom. - states-3past - There!-inj. - lamb-nom - God-gen
having set eyes on walking Jesus, he stated “there! the Lamb of God!”
My Lithuanian:
Ir pažvelgąs Ježui vaikščiojant, jis sako „Pamatyk, Dievo Avinėlis!”
cnj part-nom.s.m dat part-special-past pro-nom. verb-3-pres n-nom-s.m. n-nom.-s.-m.
which give my translation:
And having looked to Jesus walking, he says “Do see, the Lamb of God”

now the NAB has
and as he watched Jesus walk by, he said, “Behold, the Lamb of God"
the ESV:
and he looked at Jesus as he walked by and said, “Behold, the Lamb of God!”
the NRSV:
and as he watched Jesus walk by, he exclaimed, “Look, here is the Lamb of God!”

Note that my translation and the DRB translation are essentially identical except for some synonyms while the Lith1998/NAB/ESV/NRSV all suffer from changing the timing of the participle (looked at) to the same time as that of the main verb (say) which has been changed in tense to a past tense verb, which in the Greek is present tense as it is in the Latin and my translation(s) have him looking to Jesus before he says the phrase. Why is it that Jerome translated it right into Latin and the moderns are mistranslating this? It isn’t just this passage. It happens elsewhere and it is bad scholarship caused by a lack of knowledge on how participles are used in fully declined IE languages. (The 1998 Lithuanian NT translation was done in in the US and it essentially a translation out of the English translations). Can we get our translators to use the following rules:

Tense Subject Translation
present nominative while (present participle)
present other(dative) as subject (dat.) (present participle)
past (aorist, etc) nominative having (past particple)
past (aorist,etc.) other(dative) after subject (da.t) (past participle)
As you point out, there seems to be no consistencies in the translations even outside of English. Some keep it in the same tense, some not.

mlbible.com/john/1-46.htm
 
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