Could Eve have died for our sins

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We inherit sin from Adam/Eve’s broken covenant with God, and deserve death for breaking that covenant. God made Himself incarnate to substitute His death (as a human) for all humanity, thereby satisfying the consequences of a broken covenant for all humans.

(IMHO) The reason Christ’s death is a suitable substitute: he was sinless. He didn’t break the covenant as a human, and he didn’t inherit Adam/Eve’s sin because Mary’s immaculate conception. His reward (as a flesh and blood human) should be a deathless existence, but he freely chose to suffer the consequences due every other human for breaking the covenant.

If the sin-less-ness of Jesus makes Him a suitable substitute, the could Mary (sinless also) have done the same thing?
 
We inherit sin from Adam/Eve’s broken covenant with God, and deserve death for breaking that covenant. God made Himself incarnate to substitute His death (as a human) for all humanity, thereby satisfying the consequences of a broken covenant for all humans.

(IMHO) The reason Christ’s death is a suitable substitute: he was sinless.
No. The reason Christ’s death is a suitable atonement is because (1) he is man, and (2) he is God. He is sinless because he is the latter but his sinlessness alone is not the reason he could atone for man’s sin.
He didn’t break the covenant as a human, and he didn’t inherit Adam/Eve’s sin because Mary’s immaculate conception.
No. Mary’s Immaculate Conception was fitting, not necessary.
His reward (as a flesh and blood human) should be a deathless existence, but he freely chose to suffer the consequences due every other human for breaking the covenant.

If the sin-less-ness of Jesus makes Him a suitable substitute, the could Mary (sinless also) have done the same thing?
No, and see above. Mary could never have atoned for our sins because she is not God, and therefore, even despite her immaculate conception, she could not have atoned for the infinite guilt of man against God because she herself was only finite. Jesus atoned for sins as man because man was guilty. But man could not on his own ever atone for the infinite guilt against God, which is why God himself had to offer the atonement.

This is why the dogmas of the Church regarding the Incarnation are very important (especially those, against Arianism and against Nestorianism).
 
??
So, the consequences of a broken covenant between God and man is death. Man broke it requiring death, but God chose to die instead.
??

Said another way: we broke the covenant, so we need to die. God said, “Wait, wait! No, I’ll die, instead.”

Is this correct?
 
??
So, the consequences of a broken covenant between God and man is death. Man broke it requiring death, but God chose to die instead.
??

Said another way: we broke the covenant, so we need to die. God said, “Wait, wait! No, I’ll die, instead.”

Is this correct?
No, it is not.
 
So why was Christ’s death necessary? How are the consequences of man’s broken covenant satisfied?
 
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So why was Christ’s death necessary? How are the consequences of man’s broken covenant satisfied?
Christ did not die to save us from temporal death. Look around you; people are still dropping like flies.

Christ died to save us from hell. By dying he conquered the power of death itself. While men still have to die due to sin, it’s now a gateway to eternal life with God. As man, Jesus atoned for man’s sin, and as God, provided the infinite value necessary for that atonement.
 
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No because like all of us Eve was a sinner. Jesus is the ultimate sacrifice for our sins. Jesus was sinless.
 
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