D
DPMartin
Guest
phil8888I know the answer is obviously no, but I need a good explanation for a friend. My friend and I are having a discussion on the sinlessness of Jesus. He acknowledges that Jesus did not commit sin, but he also says Jesus COULD have sinned if he chose to. I posit that Jesus could not sin because Jesus is God and God cannot sin.
There is also debate on the exact meaning of “tempted”, because the Bible says Jesus was tempted. I claim he was tempted in the sense that the devil tried to lure him into something, but that Jesus was not internally tempted to act on that. My friend however claims that the fact that Jesus COULD be tempted internally but chose not to act if one of the things that makes him such a good example for us.
The main I’m wondering is (from his question):
If God is omnipotent, why can he not sin?
God can not do that which is not like Himself. For when He speaks it will be done. And all is His to do what He will with it.
But who has the right to do what they will with what is His?