Could Mary have sinned?

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EphelDuath;3137150]
Quote:justasking4
What does your “oral apostolic tradition” tell you exactly they were?
EphelDuath
Stations of the Cross, for one.
Are you saying the apostles this?
Personal interpretation is out. That leaves Church interpretation and what else? All that’s left IS the Magisterium.
Do you read the Scriptures? If so, you to must interpret what you read. If you go to what your church says about them, you must also interpret what they say to. No getting around personal interpretations.
What are you talking about? That quotation proves our point perfectly: “The prophetic word in scripture comes admittedly through human beings (2 Peter 1:21), but moved by the holy Spirit, not from their own interpretation, and is a matter of what the author and Spirit intended, not the personal interpretation of false teachers.”
Can you point to where your church has offically interpreted this passage?
What do you think AND THE GATES OF HELL WILL NOT PREVAIL AGAINST IT means?
It could mean quite a number of things.
The Church says, personal interpretation is out; scripture is only valid when interpreted in the light of the Magisterium’s authority. If you’re saying that’s wrong, then the Church is in apostasy and therefore Matthew 16:18 is a false prophecy.
Not necessarily. I would think that there are a number of catholic scholars who would not support your conclusions here.
 
Mother Mary never sinned!!! It was against her nature which is immaculate! Look it up in the dictionary re.: “IMMACULATE”!!!
What matters most is not what the church uses to describe the doctrine but what is the evidence from Scripture that she was immaculate.
 
Now, this is better from you, JA4. I can at least see where you are coming from and why.
You scared me when you use labels like “anti catholic”. Thats like getting the kiss of death—:eek:

What do you think of the definition given previously on what “full of grace” means? Is there some reading into it?
 
MariaG;3140048]
Quote:
Originally Posted by MariaG
1 Chron. 13:9-10 - this is another account of Uzzah and the Ark. For God to dwell within Mary the Ark, Mary had to be conceived without sin. For Protestants to argue otherwise would be to say that God would let the finger of Satan touch His Son made flesh. This is incomprehensible.
Quote:
Originally Posted by justasking4
This is reading into the text what is not there.
MariaG
Okay, let’s analyze this more thouroughly than just dismiss it out of hand.
1 Chron. 13:[9] And when they came to the threshing floor of Chidon, Uzzah put out his hand to hold the ark, for the oxen stumbled. [10] And the anger of the LORD was kindled against Uzzah; and he smote him because he put forth his hand to the ark; and he died there before God.
First of all, why was God angry that Uzzah even accidently touched the Ark? What did the Ark carry that was so important to deserve such a fate? And more importantly, what went into the making of the Ark?
These questions can be answered from scripture. Uzzah in his haste did something that God considered an act of sin. That much can be gleaned from this incident without going into all the details.
The making of the ark was a very specific and precise thing. Its construction is also described in the OT.
Quote:
Originally Posted by MariaG
1 Chron. 15 and 16 - these verses show the awesome reverence the Jews had for the Ark - veneration, vestments, songs, harps, lyres, cymbals, trumpets.
Quote:
Originally Posted by justasking4
Did anyone in the NT venerate Mary like this? Does anyone sing songs to her for example?
MariaG
Again, unless you wish to contradict scripture and tell me that the disciples of Christ were ready to hear and understand everything, why does this need to have explicitly happened in scruipture?
If you had some support from the NT on your typology for Mary and ark then there would be some substance to your claims. The problem is that there is none about Mary being some kind of ark and giving her honor like the catholic church does.
MariaG
Second, you seem to be saying that Mary did not carry the word of God? Or?
In a sense yes but that would not automatically mean she was some kind of ark. Its the differences between making Mary some kind of ark type with the ark itself that makes this theory break down.
The Ark, was venerated and it carried the Word of God. Either you believe that the Ark, an inanimate object that God took painstaking care to make sure was made properly, should not have been venerated, or you believe that Jesus, the Word incarnate was less than the word of God that the vessel that carried Him should not be venerated?
Was the ark itself to venerated in the OT? Were the people themselves to focus on ark as a object worship or on the One Who stood behind it?
Will you answer these questions?
Hopefully these will help.
 
I suppose this might be one possiblity but there really are no facts to back this up. Rather there was plenty of time for the apostles to think of her in her relationship to Christ and never drew the conclusions that the catholic church does about her.
There was no facts to back this up. Did Peter walk the streets of Rome all the while shoving his office in Rome’s face? No. Instead, he begins his epistle, “Greetings, from Babylon” (paraphrasing).

Mary was still alive during most of the NT Scriptures, the vast majority of them. It would make sense to keep things quiet.
 
You scared me when you use labels like “anti catholic”. Thats like getting the kiss of death—:eek:

What do you think of the definition given previously on what “full of grace” means? Is there some reading into it?
I stopped short of it, you’ll notice. But it bothered me that you saw a post that showed she was immaculate and simply threw it out in the garbage. Only in your follow-up did you show why, logically, you threw it out in the garbage.

I’m looking again at your passage. I thought “grace” was used in Ephesians and in Stephen’s accounting in Acts, and I wouldn’t use it as “favor” in those incidences. I’d like to look at it later on tonight, though, when I have more time.
 
Mary as the Ark?..The Ark was the center of worship, where sacrifices were made. Mary is never portrayed as such, and frankly it would be idolatrous to so regard her as the Tabernacle as it was in the desert.
What did the Ark carry? The Word of God.

What did Mary carry? The Word incarnate.

Unless you are claiming that the Ark did not carry the word of God or that Mary did not carry the word, the typology of Mary and the Ark cannot be dismissed so easily.

As for making a claim about idolatry, you are off base, unless, again, you are claiming that the Israelites worshipped the Ark, committing idolatry, rather than the Ark residing at the center of where they worshipped the One true God.
The implication is that somehow Mary would have been defiled by sexual activity, hence she must have remained a virgin. I’m saying sexual activity is not necessarily sinful. Jesus lay in a manger - not exactly a holy place, either before He lay there or afterwards - when the animals ate from it. What sanctified it was His presence. Animals that dared eat from it afterwards did not immediately die.
No, that is only the implication from those who don’t understand.

Mary remained a virgin not because she would be defiled, but because Christ was so Holy. Just as men were struck dead for even accidently touching the Ark which carried the Word of God, Joseph would have been struck dead for intimately touching that where the Word resided for 9 months.

As for the manger, that is beautiful imagery. What did Christ come for? One must eat the Lamb. And Christ’s first bed, was an eating trough. And why would the animals die? Besides the fact that Christ came to be our food, again, you are comparing the intimacy of a child residing in a mother’s womb with a simple chair, crib or manger. No comparision whatsoever.

You are taking your eyes off Christ. This is about Christ, less so about Mary.
Ok. I am dense. There is a difference between a womb and a chair. Or a bed a child sleeps in. Or a shirt he wears continually.
Yet you keep trying to use the same argument.
But what it is it that is so compelling restrictive about the womb that makes it mandatory that no other child could have occupied it, that the approach of Joseph would have defiled Mary, if not that sex is somehow inherently sinful, even between a godly man and his godly wife?
This is not about defilement. That is your mistaken view of Why Catholics teach it, not the Catholic teaching. Please, read these words. Thinking sex is inherently sinful is YOUR mistaken belief and is*** not*** part of Catholic teaching.

That and the typology of scripture. It makes as much sense to rail at God as to why the Ark would be defiled by a man accidently touching it that he was struck dead. Why did God strike the man dead for just acciently bumping into the Ark of the Covenant? Did the man defile the ark by accidently touching it? Or was there some other reason having to do with holiness of that which He touched?
Total depravity is not what you think it is. I think we’ve been over that ground before.
Respectfully, I have been told on these forums that total depravity really is just that, even though James Akin seems to try to say otherwise. Since I do not look to non-Catholic sources to teach definitively about Catholic doctrine, I must bow to those who are Baptists and say that Akin is wrong, Total really does mean total.

At least for some:p
Paul did not think marriage was sinful. Neither has the Church taught it. But it has, especially in monasticism, emphasized virginity as a virtue far above anything achievable in a married state. One can be a lay Catholic and trudge along in the trenches. But the spiritually superior, the elite, are chaste. If you really want to advance in the Catholic Church you cannot marry. Priests, deacons, nuns, monks are all single. What message does that send about the sinfulness of sex? And this ties in directly to the contradictory message that Mary was both married and a lifelong virgin.
No message at all unless you are claiming that Paul thought/taught that sex is sinful. Scripture tells us that it is BEST to serve God unmarried. Unless you are going to say that scripture is teaching about the sinfulness of sex, you can’t say the Catholic Church is teaching that message.
Maybe I should throw in Psalms 69:8 about now. In this prophecy Jesus was deserted by His mother’s sons
I would be glad to discuss this:) . I have never heard in any of the Protestant Bible studies I was in that this was claimed to be prophecy about Christ.

Is there a book/source for this? I would be interested in discussing/looking into this more.

God Bless,
Maria
 
What are you referring to?
I first posted a few questions in post 247, and then again in post 280.

Here they are again:)
Originally Posted by MariaG forums.catholic-questions.org/images/buttons_cad/viewpost.gif
I would be glad to answer these questions, with the scripture. And could you please answer the questions I have asked in previous posts?

1. You believe in original sin? edit: I see you have answered this one to the best of your ability in post 238. Probably need a thread devoted to original sin to explore whether or not your understanding matchest he Catholic Church:) But for the moment, I think we can say yes, you believe in the concept of original sin.

2. You believe Romans is referring to original sin and not personal sin?

3. You believe baptism is an actual miracle which removes original sin, and one is born again through the indwelling of the Holy Spirit? If an actual miracle, do you baptize infants? Why or why not?

4. You believe baptism is only symbolic?
As these relate very much to the topic at hand, that is why I have repeatedly asked these questions, because of the responses you have had in this thread.
 
These questions can be answered from scripture. Uzzah in his haste did something that God considered an act of sin. That much can be gleaned from this incident without going into all the details.
The making of the ark was a very specific and precise thing. Its construction is also described in the OT.
Yet “all the details” are important when getting into typology.

So God had very precise details for the vessel which was to carry the Word of God, yet you do not seem to think that same precision would be given to the vessel that was to carry the Word incarnate?
If you had some support from the NT on your typology for Mary and ark then there would be some substance to your claims. The problem is that there is none about Mary being some kind of ark and giving her honor like the catholic church does.
Some substance? Yet you are not willing to go into the details of the OT, which is part of the typology.

As for there being no substance to Mary being some kind of ark and giving her honor, again I ask the question, what did the Ark carry? What did Mary Carry?
Second, you seem to be saying that Mary did not carry the word of God? Or?
In a sense yes but that would not automatically mean she was some kind of ark. Its the differences between making Mary some kind of ark type with the ark itself that makes this theory break down.
In a sense? Did Mary carry the Word of God or not?

What was the vessel called in the OT that carried the Word of God?

You say you look to scripture. I suggest you start looking at the “details” of scripture and the Holy Spirit can reveal much to you:thumbsup: .
Was the ark itself to venerated in the OT? Were the people themselves to focus on ark as a object worship or on the One Who stood behind it?
The Ark itself was venerated. Veneration is very different from worship. They did not focus on the ark as an object of worship, just as we do not focus on Mary as an object/person of worship.

Do you understand the difference between veneration and worship?
Hopefully these will help
🙂 Yes, thank you.
 
This is just plain sloppy. Mary in this passage is Martha’s sister, not Mary His mother. Sheesh.
Look again. I wrote Jesus “could very well have” referred to his mother. I’m aware that he’s referring to Martha’s sister. Perhaps you should brush up on your English grammar. 😉

Pax vobiscum
Good Fella :cool:
 
Warning to other thread participants

Don’t fall for this. I spent months on this question with ja4, only to find out that he has no interest at all in learning about Sacred Tradition.Furthermore, he does not believe it exists. In the end, I learned that ja4 believes
  1. “Sacred Tradition” is really only the speculation of men
  2. The Teachers of the Church have led Catholics astray
  3. Catholics fail to hold their teachers accountable for teaching errors
  4. His goal in askng it is to create dialogue through which he hopes to convince Catholics of 1-3 above. :eek:
I agree!!!

forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=170992&page=11&highlight=you+must+do+is+be+on+guard+against+false+teachers+in+your+own+church
 
I suppose this might be one possiblity but there really are no facts to back this up. Rather there was plenty of time for the apostles to think of her in her relationship to Christ and never drew the conclusions that the catholic church does about her.
ja4, this has been a consistent theme for you. I am curious why you come to a Catholic forum, champion your Sola Scriptura approach, and constantly harangue Catholics about their beliefs.
 
What matters most is not what the church uses to describe the doctrine but what is the evidence from Scripture that she was immaculate.
We see it differently, ja4. Catholics are more concerned with what God has Revealed. It seems that you are more stuck on analyzing the text, which is fine, as far as it goes.
 
Do you read the Scriptures? If so, you to must interpret what you read. If you go to what your church says about them, you must also interpret what they say to. No getting around personal interpretations.
Yes, there is, ja4. A disciple can choose to accept the Apostolic Teachings, then look at the scriptures in the light of those teachings, which makes the most sense.
Can you point to where your church has offically interpreted this passage?
The Catholic Teaching is much broader than the way fundamentalists interpret. There are many methods of interpretation that are used, and there are acceptable renderings on many levels. The Apostolic Teaching does not take verses singularly as is your habit. If you understood the Jewish methods of hermeneutics that Jesus used, you would be able to see this is not how He showed the Apostles.
Not necessarily. I would think that there are a number of catholic scholars who would not support your conclusions here.
This is a thinking error in your part. The Teaching of Jesus is not subject to the scholars, but the other way around. This is the error of the Reformers, putting scholarship above Revelation.
 
Not so. It is by far best to think of these children as “real” children born by natural means of a relationship with Joseph.
There is no use talking to you my brother in Christ because you do not open your heart to the truth.
 
There is no use talking to you my brother in Christ because you do not open your heart to the truth.
Don’t forget, Deana. There are others on these threads that have the exact same questions as JA4, but are not inclined to post. I hesitate to call them lurkers, because that’s such a negative image (what is a better term for people who read the threads but don’t post?). Those people are the reasons you must not give up talking to JA4, for many of them may not be as obstinate as you feel that JA4 is.
 
Unless you are claiming that the Ark did not carry the word of God or that Mary did not carry the word, the typology of Mary and the Ark cannot be dismissed so easily.
Any metaphor or type can be used incorrectly. The ark in the temple was the center of worship, not Mary. The religious life of the Jews centered around the temple, not Mary. Or there were two arks, the one in the temple, the second Mary. She did not replace the ark. One could as easily say Mary is a type of the ark as that the ark is a type of Mary. One may well lead one to a better understanding of the other, but unless either leads one to Christ, the time is wasted. Pushing the ark theory (and I am not using the word theory here in the sense of something unproven but rather as a developed set of ideas; disparagement is not meant) too far will lead to error.
Mary remained a virgin not because she would be defiled, but because Christ was so Holy. Just as men were struck dead for even accidently touching the Ark which carried the Word of God, Joseph would have been struck dead for intimately touching that where the Word resided for 9 months.
You make my case. Are you saying anyone who even hugged Mary got slaughtered? I don’t think so. But sex is off limits. If she got a belly rub while pregnant, did anyone die? Where is the limit? You won’t say it, but the presupposition here is that sex is wrong. Chastity is far superior, normal sexual activity indulgent and sinful.
 
Yet you keep trying to use the same argument.
As opposed to saying “that is so obvious,” without presenting any argument?
This is not about defilement. That is your mistaken view of Why Catholics teach it, not the Catholic teaching. Please, read these words. Thinking sex is inherently sinful is YOUR mistaken belief and is*** not*** part of Catholic teaching.

That and the typology of scripture. It makes as much sense to rail at God as to why the Ark would be defiled by a man accidently touching it that he was struck dead. Why did God strike the man dead for just acciently bumping into the Ark of the Covenant? Did the man defile the ark by accidently touching it? Or was there some other reason having to do with holiness of that which He touched?
Blessed is the man whose sin is COVERED, as the Israelites were at Passover by the blood of the lamb. Lot is called righteous in the NT, as is David. Yet we read their lives. Why are they called such? Because their sins were covered by the blood of the Lamb. Not completely removed while they still lived. Mary would have approached God in the only way that is pleasing to Him, and that is not by her own righteousness but by faith, and that would be reckoned righteousness to her. Not some pseudo-righteousness of virginity, but a purity of the spirit, given by grace in grace with grace in faith from faith to faith, which might lead to a real righteousness of viirginity. Uzzah in contrast must not have been acting in faith. His sins were not covered and his iniquity was not atoned for (and we know the only way that can happen is by Calvary, not our own deeds).
Respectfully, I have been told on these forums that total depravity really is just that, even though James Akin seems to try to say otherwise. Since I do not look to non-Catholic sources to teach definitively about Catholic doctrine, I must bow to those who are Baptists and say that Akin is wrong, Total really does mean total.

At least for some:p
How about a deal? Let me have “total” as not meaning “total” and you can have “all have sinned” with the exception of Mary. Trade you!😃
No message at all unless you are claiming that Paul thought/taught that sex is sinful. Scripture tells us that it is BEST to serve God unmarried. Unless you are going to say that scripture is teaching about the sinfulness of sex, you can’t say the Catholic Church is teaching that message.
Paul did not teach that sex was sinful. Aside from his writings in the NT, I don’t know what he taught (here we go with Tradition, one of the few things this thread hasn’t gotten into:rolleyes:). What the Church teaches and what people in the Church teach are two different things, if not more. Official Church teaching is that sex is good; practice is that it should be avoided, if the example of the leaders is that they should lead by example.
I would be glad to discuss this:) . I have never heard in any of the Protestant Bible studies I was in that this was claimed to be prophecy about Christ.

Is there a book/source for this? I would be interested in discussing/looking into this more.

God Bless,
Maria
Psalm 69 is a primary Messianic prophecy, quoted in the Gospels. A good Bible will have references in the Gospels showing the quotes and references to the Gospels in the Psalm. The meaning is clear - the one speaking in the psalm, who is suffering as Christ suffered, had brothers from his mother. We take verses on either side of it as distinct Messianic verses, but pick and choose away from this verse in what seems to be intellectual dishonesty if you insist it cannot have relevance to the Christ. The book/source is the book of Psalms. No interpretation is needed past the text.
 
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