Luke tells us she gave a sin offering:
Luke 2:22
And when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem, to present him to the Lord;
Mary brought two turtledoves, one for a burnt offering and one for a sin offering.
Do you forget that Jesus himself was baptized by John with the baptism of repentence? Is this proof that Jesus sinned? Mary was purified according to the law of Moses for the same reason that Jesus was cleansed by the baptism of repentence: it was fitting for all righteousness.
Mary was certainly a special person and should be called blessed but to think that she could have gone through life without sin would not be likely. There is no Scriptural basis at all for this.
There is. Genesis 3,15 and Luke 1,28.
catholic-legate.com/dialogues/ic.html
< “God could not provide Jesus with a singular, unfallen human nature and STILL have Jesus have some connection to the rest of us. However, by applying the merits of Christ to His mother “outside of time” (and so Baptizing her into Christ in advance), Jesus was able to both come from the line of Adam (through Mary) AND take on an undamaged humanity, like that of Adam (and Eve) before the Fall. And, indeed, this was clearly God’s plan from the start, per Genesis 3:15, which places “the woman” (a New Eve) in opposition to the serpent, bringing the Messiah out of that - the Seed of the woman pitted against the seed of the serpent. Otherwise, Jesus would not have taken on a sinless and uncorrupted human nature, but our fallen nature, and so He could not have been the New Adam, but a fallen son of Adam like all the rest of us. In this, one must also keep in mind that the sin which plunged humanity into darkness was that of Adam, not of Eve. Eve did sin first; but until Adam, as head of the human family, joined her in sin (instead of remaining faithful and interceding for her), humanity as a whole was not cut off from God. This is the problem which the New Adam came to repair. And, since woman was not the cause of mankind’s final break with God, God takes the creation of woman and re-builds the human race from her (a New Eve --Mary), using her to bring the New Adam (the God-man) into the world, which, in the very same dynamic, makes this New Eve’s sinlessness possible.” >
< “First of all, in Luke 1:28 (10 verses BEFORE she gives her “yes” in Luke 1:38) Mary is called “Kecharitomenae” --“Full of grace” or, more properly, “She who is perfectly graced.” This could not be possible unless Mary was already sinless prior to the angel’s arrival --that is, before her “yes” to God. Likewise, if the humanities of both Mary and Jesus Himself were “deified” (“sanctified”) at the time of Christ’s conception, then this means a) That Jesus drew His humanity from a fallen source and, even more problematically, b) that mankind, in the prototypes of Mary and Jesus, WAS NOT redeemed by the INCARNATE Son (the God-man), but by the Son INDEPENDENTLY of His Incarnation!!! And, if this is the case, then the Incarnation would not be necessary at all. Rather, the eternal Son could have remained in Heaven and “zapped” everyone on earth with sinlessness from there.
However, that’s obviously not what we believe. We do not believe that Mary became sinless via the eternal Son’s (spiritual) Presence entering her womb, nor do we believe that Jesus’ own humanity became sinless because of the eternal Son’s “taking on” of it. Rather, we believe that the God-man (the Incarnate Christ --the New Adam) redeems humanity and we believe that this happened because 1) the saving merits of the God-man were applied to His intended mother outside of time / in advance (rendering her sinless), and that Jesus took His own sinless humanity from her - that is, Jesus also “redeemed” His own humanity in advance (in redeeming His mother’s) by applying the merits of own His Incarnation to His mother, and then taking that sinless humanity from her.” >
:hypno: