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Originally Posted by justasking4
Her acknowledgement of a Savior and Romans 5:12
Mannyfit75
That doesn’t prove she sinned. She didn’t say she is a sinner. So that is false premise on your part.
Do you have any catholic scholarship on the Scriptures themselves (commentaries) that supports your view?
For example this is what the New American Bible in its footnotes on this passage says this:
“[12-21] Paul reflects on the sin of Adam (Genesis 3:1-13) in the light of the redemptive mystery of Christ. Sin, as used in the singular by Paul, refers to the dreadful power that has gripped humanity, which is now in revolt against the Creator and engaged in the exaltation of its own desires and interests. But no one has a right to say, “Adam made me do it,” for all are culpable (Romans 5:12): Gentiles under the demands of the law written in their hearts (Romans 2:14-15), and Jews under the Mosaic covenant. Through the Old Testament law, the sinfulness of humanity that was operative from the beginning (Romans 5:13) found further stimulation, with the result that sins were generated in even greater abundance. According to Romans 5:15-21, God’s act in Christ is in total contrast to the disastrous effects of the virus of sin that invaded humanity through Adam’s crime.
5 [12] Inasmuch as all sinned: others translate “because all sinned,” and understand v 13 as a parenthetical remark. Unlike Wisdom 2:24, Paul does not ascribe the entry of death to the devil.”
Quote:
justasking4
There is none explicitedly that states this. However there are no such statements for many others either in the NT. I guess they were sinless to.
Mannyfit75
They could be. I do believe they are righteous
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Are you saying these people were also sinless i.e. chose not to sin?
Mannyfit75
The only difference is that none of them gave birth to God. Mary gave birth to God, the Second Person of the Trinity, Jesus Christ.
Jesus could not be born of a sinful woman because sin offend God. Jesus’ own flesh comes from Mary. If she had sin, Jesus’ flesh would be defiled because of her sin. Jesus is Holy and nothing impure can touch HIM! Therefore, Mary is sinless and pure.
A sinful Mary is an insult to Jesus. God made her pure from the moment of her conception.
You can’t have God born of someone who has sinful vomit on her soul. She had to be pure! Just like the Ark. The Ark carried the Word of God and Jews take special care of making sure it is pure. No one was allowed to touch it and someone did, they die.
I don’t think you are taking into consideration what Paul writes in Philippians 2:6-7 which says that Jesus “emptied” Himself of His full deity rights so that He could live among us as a man. He limited Himself for our sakes that He could live among us without destroying us because of our sin.
Who, 3 though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped. 4
7
Rather, he emptied himself, taking the form of a slave, coming in human likeness; 5 and found human in appearance,
The other problem you have with this – “Jesus is Holy and nothing impure can touch HIM” is that it is not supported in the gospels. Impure and sinful people are touching Him all the time and He does not destroy them for it. So it follows that Mary would not have to be sinless and pure for her to birth Jesus. Jesus would not be “contaminated” by Mary’ sinfulness nor any man’s for that matter.