JJ you are all over the place here.
And I am still at a loss to know exactly what it is I said that concerns you so.
Can you give me one clear sentence?
I cannot see anthing in the CCC above that I have contradicted

.
Let me summarise for you a third time: I see nothing in Church teaching than compells Catholics to believe that Jesus displayed clear fore-knowledge of the particulars of his death well before it actually happened. Yes Jesus had practical certitude re the general terms of how things would end (predicting his death at the hands of the authorities and confiding such to his closest followers) but that is hardly a fore-knowledge of particulars deriving from his Divine nature.
JJ remember this is an Apologetics Forum not a Dogmatic Theology Forum.
In apologetics we discuss from the point of view, at times, of a non-believer, that is, as if we did not have the additional certainties that the Magisterium and normative Catholic teaching provides us. And then we work back towards faith insights from there, putting them in a light and angle perhaps we have not reflected on before. This is also a supposition often used in acceptable Catholic Biblical exegetical studies as well.
In this light the NT record clearly shows discrepancies over what the apostles/disciples allegedly knew of the specifics of Jesus’s death and resurrection beforehand. For all intents and purposes they are recorded, at the time of Jesus’s death, as acting without any hope or even knowledge of these wondefully clear details you speak of. Therefore it is a legitimate exegetical question to ask "Did Jesus really talk to his followers in great and clear detail about these things before His death…or is it just a theological and very effective literary device (Look up “The Messianic Secret in Mark”) used by Matthew (or the other evangelists) to communicate what is in fact Matthew’s post-resurrection knowledge/faith to his reading audience? We do not actually seem to know the answer to that question with 100% certainty either way at the level of historical investigation alone.
Even with Church teaching I find it difficult to get a clear answer. We do know that God the Father had clear foreknowledge, but the man Jesus before his death? Difficult.
Have a look yourself at
newadvent.org/cathen/08675a.htm. Perhaps you could find something clearer in this regard. I would be interested.
Anyway, this sort of discussion seems to disturb you, yet unnecessarily so. Just because the Bible may not clearly support a Church teaching (or even support it at all) does not mean the teaching is misguided or wrong. It simply means we are not able to get the easy historical certitude that we would like. So what? Faith is faith, not pure science/history. Its nice when they clearly accord - but they don’t have to do they?