Could somebody please explain this for me?

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Actually the quotes are not 100% from the septuagint.

They were indeed in their vast majority from the septuaging (I think in the neighborhood of 70%).

The purpose of my post was to give the person the benefit of the doubt. You know the whole innocent until proven guilty thing? :).

It was not to justify how, when, where or by whom was the Bible written.
Gotcha Covered:thumbsup:
 
Heard it tonight as well. The person obviously just doesn’t understand that a book could be written from that angle. Please don’t tell him that the Old Testament in the KJV does not contain all the books that were considered Scripture when Jesus was studying and reading them in Temple… One would think Jesus would have mentioned something if the wrong books were considered sacred.
The LXX was not translated for those Jews who worshipped in the Temple…it was a translation for the Diaspora…It is highly doubtful Jesus would have used the LXX in the temple or synagouge…the writers of the NT were all Greek speaking…so they would have used the LXX as all the writers of the NT except for Paul were of the DIaspora.
 
What a bizarre notion considering some people who have not read the bible…much less the KJV…are in heaven.
 
Giving the person the benefit…

The person may believe that reading things about Jesus other than the Bible are not positive. And the only Bible they know is the KJV. Thus the reference. The person might have a sincere preoccupation about Mr. O’Reilly’s soul.

I’ve met simple well-hearted people that all they know is that the KJV is the word of God. They have no idea about various denominations, etc. They are just happy that they can read and hear the word of God. For them, it only comes in the KJV.

Peace,
Good point.
 
What a bizarre notion considering some people who have not read the bible…much less the KJV…are in heaven.
Then again, there are some who live by the “bible alone” doctrine, who have never actually read the bible and base their beliefs on a handful of bible verses taken out of context.
 
I haven’t read Mr. O’Reilly’s book but I imagine he did his research and that would have involved the Bible. It is a myth that Catholics don’t read or know their bibles.
 
Isn’t it also possible that this quote (1st post) is the result of political and not religious differences?
 
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