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I just learned for the first time that the people in the OT actually had their original sin remitted and possessed sanctifying grace (according to Aquinas). I know that it’s because Christ’s sacrifice is timeless, but it still kind of threw me for a loop. I never considered that people could actually be justified before then, and as an ex-Protestant it’s sort of confusing: I always thought they just had to be obedient under the Law and wait for Christ’s coming. How is our salvation, post-crucifixion, different from theirs? I would imagine our sacraments are far superior, but keep in mind I’m coming from a view where it wasn’t possible for them to be “righteous”. Were they adopted children of God too? Was their grace deifying (it would have to be, right?) This kind of throws my understanding of Christ’s purpose for a loop.