(continued )
You still have not addressed the issue. Mormons have these beliefs because it is your church who taught them. You think that “anti-mormons” just made this stuff up, when the truth is, it is your church that has taught it. You may not believe it now. Your church may have backed on the teachings. It doesn’t change the fact that they are still around and there are still mormons who believe AND teach them.
There are still Catholics who believe in and official limbo–an actual place in hell devoted to unbaptized infants. Thomas Aquinus, Peter Abelard…lots of folks taught it. Yet it is not official doctrine. Should I insist that YOU ‘really believe’ that unbaptized infants are sent to the outermost (or first) circle of hell because some very important people in it have taught exactly that?
Even if it is NOT official doctrine? I understand that 'official doctrine" lies somewhere around unbaptized infants being denied ‘eternal beatitude’ but because they are personally sinless, are in a state of permanent ‘natural happiness,’ unaware of the ultimate joy that is denied them because of original sin.
It is a far more comforting idea than that of some Protestant faiths, that consign unbaptized infants to the fires of hell. After all, permanent natural happiness is a whale of a lot better than what we have HERE.
Still, one could, if one were going to be picky, point out the similarities here; you, as a Catholic, being bound to something that a great many of your leaders have actually taught–even though you may not believe it and know that it is NOT official doctrine. Is it fair to you? Is it fair to the church? I’d say no…but if this isn’t fair to you or your faith, why is it fair of you to do it to me?
<snip explanation of the necessity of baptism in Catholicism, only for space. Thank you for posting it.>
It only is valid if the person doing the baptizing has the same intent as that of the Church. As the Church has ruled that LDS baptisms are invalid, I would not think that a baptism performed by an LDS person is valid.
I understand that the actual words spoken are vital: the person must be baptized in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: that the names of all three Persons must be mentioned separately–that being baptized in the name of the Trinity, for instance, is not valid (from the Catholic Encyclopedia).
Yet this prayer: "Having been commissioned of Jesus Christ, I baptize you in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost; is NOT valid? "
I don’t get it. I understand why we do not accept Catholic baptisms; we really do believe that it’s more than just immersion, the words and intent. We believe that the person doing it has to have the authority TO do it…and we don’t believe that you guys have it any more. But according to the Catholic encyclopedia, anyone who has the desire to baptize may do so, as long as there is water (no other liquid), that it ‘flows’ and actually touches some part of the skin, and that the following is also true:
"In addition to the necessary word “baptize”, or its equivalent, it is also obligatory to mention the separate Persons of the Holy Trinity. This is the command of Christ to His Disciples, and as the sacrament has its efficacy from Him Who instituted it, we can not omit anything that He has prescribed. Nothing is more certain than that this has been the general understanding and practice of the Church. Tertullian tells us (On Baptism 13): “The law of baptism (tingendi) has been imposed and the form prescribed: Go, teach the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost.” St. Justin Martyr (First Apology 1) testifies to the practice in his time. St. Ambrose (On the Mysteries 4) declares: “Unless a person has been baptized in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost, he can not obtain the remission of his sins,” St. Cyprian (Epistle 72), rejecting the validity of baptism given in the name of Christ only, affirms that the naming of all the Persons of the Trinity was commanded by the Lord (in plena et adunata Trinitate). The same is declared by many other primitive writers, as St. Jerome (IV, in Matt.), Origen (De Principiis I.2), St. Athanasius (Against the Arians, Oration 4), St. Augustine (On Baptism 6.25). It is not, of course, absolutely necessary that the common names Father, Son, and Holy Ghost be used, provided the Persons be expressed by words that are equivalent or synonymous. But a distinct naming of the Divine Persons is required and the form: “I baptize thee in the name of the Holy Trinity”, would be of more than doubtful validity.
The singular form “In the name”, not “names”, is also to be employed, as it expresses the unity of the Divine nature. When, through ignorance, an accidental, not substantial, change has been made in the form (as In nomine patriâ for Patris), the baptism is to be held valid. "
…so it seems that the LDS form is acceptable, right down to the use of the word “name” as a singular rather than plural form. Since Catholicism has (also according to this source) accepted the validity of baptisms performed using this form even when their beliefs are far more heretical than OURS are, I don’t get it.
I understand that you don’t accept our baptisms. Turn about is more than fair play–but I can’t help but think that the reason you don’t isn’t the reason you claim. (“you” being Catholicism in general, not ‘you,’ Rebecca)
However, the Church recognizes the intent and would consider this a “baptism of desire”. The desire being that of the parents. The same for an adult catechumen who died before being baptized.
Which is why the Catholic church does accept it, I imagine…and the only reason why one of us would do it; it is the faith of the parent at work here.