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mardukm
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Blessings,
Marduk
That is the GENERAL background of it, true - it grew out of the Middle Ages when the Pope was trying to combat caeseropapism. But what makes you think that that is the ONE and SOLE and IMMEDIATE impetus for every statement on the primacy from Vatican I? In fact, the Vatican Council specifically mentions that tension between Church and State (I quoted the section in a previous post). But THAT section (that I quoted) is where you will find a discussion on the relationship between Church and State. The section you are referring to (the one on the Pope not standing in the way of the prerogatives of his brother bishops) has nothing to do with Church and State, but is SPECIFICALLY concerning the relationshp between the Pope and his brother bishops. It should be noted that the Section that deals with the relationship between the Church and State comes AFTER this Section dealing with the relationship between the Pope and his brother bishops. I mean, you are obviously fond of taking the “obvious” meaning of the texts. If the purpose of the text on the relationship between the Pope and his brother bishops was really only about protecting the bishops form the State, then WHY IS THE FIRST SENTENCE OF THAT SECTION SPECIFICALLY CONCERNED WITH THE PREROGATIVES OF THE POPE POSSIBLY STANDING IN THE WAY OF THE PREROGATIVES OF HIS BROTHER BISHOPS? Why didn’t the text rather say, “The power of the State is far from standing in the way of prerogatives of the bishops?”It is right out of Joseph Ratzinger’s book The Nature and Mission of Theology. The seperation of Church and state was the purpose for the development of universal jurisdiction.
Ordinary and immediate, but to be exercised in an extraordinary manner, with a divine OBLIGATION to respect, uphold, and defend the prerogatives of his brother bishops. Don’t chop up the texts to make it mean what you want. Take the FULL context, please, and more than that, do so with a mind towards the context of Sacred Tradition.Yes, the bishop has ordinary power in his diocese but so does the pope. The popes power is ordinary and immediate over every church.
Like I said, I can understand that there is a conflict in you, having grown up around Latins, and having imbibed a Latin understanding of the Church. But many of us EC’s and OC’s simply don’t have that conflict (or at least not much) nor that Latin understanding. I don’t feel exasperated at all explaining to you my point of view. If you are exasperated, I think it’s because you are trying to impose your experience on every else. I respect your position. But I simply don’t believe it is a sufficient basis to engage in fearmongering that could cause people to be biased and prejudiced against the Catholic Church.These discussions are exasperating for me because it seems to me that you interpret the magisterial statements concerning Romes authority in a way that makes them meaningless. It might say that Rome has universal jurisdiction but you interpret that to mean that he has authority over his patriarchate or you interpret it in a limited sense even though they have denied all limitation.
Blessings,
Marduk