I
In_Spiration
Guest
Via Maverick Philosopher:
No doubt, things exist. At least I exist, and that suffices to show that something exists. But could it have been the case that nothing ever existed? Actually, there is something; but is it possible that there have been nothing? Or is it rather the case that necessarily there is something? Is it not only actually the case that there is something, but also necessarily the case that there is something? I will argue that there could not have been nothing and that therefore necessarily there is something.
- Let S = Something exists and N = Nothing exists, and assume for reductio that N is possibly true.
- If N is possibly true, then S, which is true, and known to be true, is only contingently true.
Therefore- There are possible worlds in which S is false and possible worlds in which S is true. ( From 2, by definition of ‘contingently true’)
- In the worlds in which S is true, something exists. (Because if ‘Something exists’ is true, then something exists.)
- In the worlds in which S is false, it is also the case that something exists, namely, S. (For an item cannot have a property unless it exists, and so S cannot have the property of being false unless S exists)
- Every proposition is either true, or if not true, then false. (Bivalence)
Any good?Therefore
7. Every world has something in it, hence there is no world in which nothing exists.
Therefore
8. N is not possibly true, and necessarily something exists.