GKC,May I say that posts with maps are neat.
GKC
What position do Anglicans (generally
Jon
GKC,May I say that posts with maps are neat.
GKC
It varies (of course). I have seen an Anglican on this very board, take precisely the position that Hesychios does.GKC,
What position do Anglicans (generally) take regarding this issue?
Jon
my apologies in advance for any historical blunders on my part due to my ingnorance.No it doesn’t
Please read it again.
These were the years when the church in the east was emerging from the catacomb existence of being an illegal sect. Constantine had liberated the western churches ten years before, and they were operating in the open.
The council fathers wanted to preserve the church structure that had existed before the liberation.
…
The fathers of the church gathered at Nicea decided that they should remain under the Metropolitan of Alexandria, in his synod which included all of Aegyptus.
“… the ancient order of things in Egypt, Libya, and Pentapolis must be maintained, to wit, that the Bishop of Alexandria should have authority over all these provinces …”
Then it goes on to say that all the other provinces should do likewise.
The example given was the Roman church, already legal for ten years, it continued to administer the churches of Suburbicarian Italy as it did before the liberation of Saint Constantine (Edict of Milan).
.
I will have to take issue with this assertion, as many of the later councils of the Church do quite the opposite. The Second and Third Councils of Constantinople are a complete embarrassment for the idea of Papal Supremacy. In Constantinople II, Pope Vigilius was anathematized for his support of the three chapters. He later redacted his defense of the three chapters and said that he was misled by the devil. In Constantinople III, Pope Honorius and Patriarch Sergius of Constantinople were anathematized posthumously. We also have the events of Ephesus and Chalcedon, where the Council of Ephesus refused to recognize the pope’s excommunication of Nestorius as being universal and instead welcomed him to the council in order to present his views, and the Council of Chalcedon refused to read Leo’s Tome until after they had drafted their own definition of what they believed to be Orthodox belief; only after they had established consensus did they read the Tome and exclaim, “Peter has spoken!” The idea that the Pope was supreme over the council or that he had some form of authority over the Ecumenical Councils is completely novel and not based on history.moreover St. Cyril of Alexandria calls the Pope “Archbishop of the whole world” as I recall. and the Ecumenical Council of Ephesus likewise testifies to Papal Supremacy in Christ, as do later Ecumenical Councils
I can’t speak to some of thatI will have to take issue with this assertion, as many of the later councils of the Church do quite the opposite. The Second and Third Councils of Constantinople are a complete embarrassment for the idea of Papal Supremacy. In Constantinople II, Pope Vigilius was anathematized for his support of the three chapters. He later redacted his defense of the three chapters and said that he was misled by the devil. In Constantinople III, Pope Honorius and Patriarch Sergius of Constantinople were anathematized posthumously. We also have the events of Ephesus and Chalcedon, where the Council of Ephesus refused to recognize the pope’s excommunication of Nestorius as being universal and instead welcomed him to the council in order to present his views, and the Council of Chalcedon refused to read Leo’s Tome until after they had drafted their own definition of what they believed to be Orthodox belief; only after they had established consensus did they read the Tome and exclaim, “Peter has spoken!” The idea that the Pope was supreme over the council or that he had some form of authority over the Ecumenical Councils is completely novel and not based on history.
I can’t speak to some of that. I don’t think that Papal Supremacy means that everyone accepted it at Ecumenical Councls, or that there is nothing in such Councls which conflicts with this doctrine.
I think it does mean that these Councils have jurisdictional authority only to the extent the Successor of Peter allows.
and I can’t agree about Chalcedon, though you may be right about reading his Tome. I don’t see what that proves. they say so much in favor of Papal Supremacy
*You are set as an interpreter to all of the voice of blessed Peter, and to all you impart the blessings of that Faith. – Chalcedon to Pope Leo, Ep 98
For if where two or three are gathered together in His name He has said that there He is in the midst of them, must He not have been much more particularly present with 520 priests, who preferred the spread of knowledge concerning Him …Of whom you were Chief, as Head to the members, showing your good will. – Chalcedon to Pope Leo (Repletum est Gaudio), November 451*
philvaz.com/apologetics/a35.htm
I think there is no way to determine which councils are ecumenical without believing in Papal Supremacy
philvaz.com/apologetics/a30.htm
and certainly the Popes did claim this supremacy historically.
I also know that Chrysostom says that Simon Rock could have ordained a replacement for Judas without anyone’s approval
Here is forethought for providing a teacher; here was the first who was ordained a teacher. He did not say: ‘We are sufficient.’ So far was he beyond all vain glory, and he looked to one thing alone. And yet he had the same power to ordain as they all collectively. [3] But well might these things be done in this fashion, through the noble spirit of the man, and in regard that prelacy [Greek] then was not an affair of dignity, but of provident care for the governed. This neither made the elected to become elated, for it was to dangers that they were called, nor those not elected to make a grievance of it, as if they were disgraced. But things are not done in that fashion now; nay, quite the contrary. For observe they were a hundred and twenty, and he asks for one out of the whole body; with good right, as having been put in charge of them [Benedictine text has different Greek here]; for to him Christ had said: ‘And when thou art converted, strengthen thy brethren’." (Oxford, page 42, Migne, 37[26])
philvaz.com/apologetics/num52.htm
What that doesn’t mention is the fact that Canon 28 was accepted formally by the RCC at the Second Council of Lyon, and that it still took effect in the East immediately after the Council of Chalcedon, despite the pope’s refusal to agree to it (and also despite its high unpopularity with Alexandria and Antioch). In addition, Canon 28 states that Rome received her primacy because she was the royal city. Canon 28 makes no mention of any sort of divine rite to rule via Petrine Succession. The Church Fathers did not seem to regard Rome’s primacy as anything but a privilege given to her by the council.I can’t speak to some of that
and I can’t agree about Chalcedon.
*You are set as an interpreter to all of the voice of blessed Peter, and to all you impart the blessings of that Faith. – Chalcedon to Pope Leo, Ep 98
For if where two or three are gathered together in His name He has said that there He is in the midst of them, must He not have been much more particularly present with 520 priests, who preferred the spread of knowledge concerning Him …Of whom you were Chief, as Head to the members, showing your good will. – Chalcedon to Pope Leo (Repletum est Gaudio), November 451*
philvaz.com/apologetics/a35.htm
and I think there is no way to determine which councils are ecumenical without believing in Papal Supremacy
Sure there is. There has only been one “Ecumenical Council” in the history of the Church which was ever in question, and that council was the Robber Council at Ephesus. It was overturned at Chalcedon because upon reviewing the acts of the council, it was decided that the Second Council of Ephesus was conducted improperly and therefore not ecumenical. Perhaps from the Catholic perspective, there’s no way to determine if a council is ecumenical or not without papal supremacy, but the Orthodox believe in no such nonsense. Had that been the case, then the Fifth Ecumenical Council wouldn’t be ecumenical since pope Vigilius would have refused to approve it (instead, it was the other way around; the council told pope Vigilius what to believe under pain of excommunication, and when he refused, he was stricken from the diptychs and imprisoned until he agreed to submit to Orthodox belief).
St. John Chrysostom was also a proponent of the idea that all bishops are inheritors of Peter, not just the pope, and he spent a majority of his life as a bishop in schism with Rome. His home patriarchate, Antioch, besides being in schism with Rome at the time of his ordination, is also a claimant for the Petrine Succession. He’s not exactly the type of figure who would have believed in papal supremacy.I also know that Chrysostom says that Simon Rock could have ordained a replacement for Judas without anyone’s approval
Hi Cavaradossi,What that doesn’t mention is the fact that Canon 28 was accepted formally by the RCC at the Second Council of Lyon, and that it still took effect in the East immediately after the Council of Chalcedon, despite the pope’s refusal to agree to it (and also despite its high unpopularity with Alexandria and Antioch). In addition, Canon 28 states that Rome received her primacy because she was the royal city. Canon 28 makes no mention of any sort of divine rite to rule via Petrine Succession. The Church Fathers did not seem to regard Rome’s primacy as anything but a privilege given to her by the council.
Sure there is. There has only been one “Ecumenical Council” in the history of the Church which was ever in question, and that council was the Robber Council at Ephesus. It was overturned at Chalcedon because upon reviewing the acts of the council, it was decided that the Second Council of Ephesus was conducted improperly and therefore not ecumenical. Perhaps from the Catholic perspective, there’s no way to determine if a council is ecumenical or not without papal supremacy, but the Orthodox believe in no such nonsense. Had that been the case, then the Fifth Ecumenical Council wouldn’t be ecumenical since pope Vigilius would have refused to approve it (instead, it was the other way around; the council told pope Vigilius what to believe under pain of excommunication, and when he refused, he was stricken from the diptychs and imprisoned until he agreed to submit to Orthodox belief).
St. John Chrysostom was also a proponent of the idea that all bishops are inheritors of Peter, not just the pope, and he spent a majority of his life as a bishop in schism with Rome. His home patriarchate, Antioch, besides being in schism with Rome at the time of his ordination, is also a claimant for the Petrine Succession. He’s not exactly the type of figure who would have believed in papal supremacy.
I think I mentioned this elsewhere, but St. John Chrysostom was not in communion with Rome for the first 17 years of his Ordination. If he truly believed that Rome was the center of Christendom, then he would not have allowed himself to be ordained by Meletius, the bishop of Antioch with whom Rome and Alexandria were in schism. When he speaks of the Peter’s succession, he’s likely talking about how it’s received by all bishops.Hi Cavaradossi,
thanks for your post, my sister or brother. I don’t think that a Pope being reproved by a Ecumenical council for heresy or apostasy would prove anything.
but I can understand why you would have those views. I’ve looked into these issues and believe I have sincerely found that the Eastern Orthdox position as opposed to the Catholic is not correct.
I think It doesn’t make any sense that Chryostom believed that Rock had in himself the same power to ordain as the rest of the Apostles as a group. am I saying that right?
here it is:
Here is forethought for providing a teacher; here was the first who was ordained a teacher. He did not say: ‘We are sufficient.’ So far was he beyond all vain glory, and he looked to one thing alone. And yet he had the same power to ordain as they all collectively
why would such a Primacy be needed at the beginning and not today?
also, this article is interesting:
"As we study the problem of primacy in general, and especially the primacy of Rome, we must not be ruled by polemical motives: the problem is to be solved to satisfy ourselves and Orthodox theology. The solution of the problem is urgent, since Orthodox theology has not yet built up any systematic doctrine on Church government. And although we have a doctrine concerning Ecumenical Councils as organs of government in the Church, we shall see presently that our doctrine is not enough to refute the Catholic doctrine of primacy." (Afanassieff, page 92)
philvaz.com/apologetics/num12.htm
That is a minority opinion within Orthodoxy for sure.that is from an EO scholar in Meyendorff’s famous book on the Papacy, which says that that the Councils and Father unanimously saw Rome as the center of Ecumenical agreement
I am confused by what you mean by this. Do you believe that the pope is above politics?it doesn’t make sense to me that a matter of faith wwould be dictated merely by politics rather than faith and the role of Simon Rock
Loughlin quotes Chalcedon, asking for the Pope to confirm Canon 28:
“We make known to you furthermore,” wrote the Fathers of Chalcedon to the successor of St. Peter, “that we have made still another enactment which we have deemed necessary for the maintenance of good order and discipline, and we are persuaded that your Holiness will approve and confirm our decree… We are confident you will shed upon the Church of Constantinople a ray of that Apostolic splendor which you possess, for you have ever cherished this church, and you are not at all niggardly in imparting your riches to your children. . . Vouchsafe then, most Holy and most Blessed Father, to accept what we have done in your name, and in a friendly spirit (hos oikeia te kai phila). For your legates have made a violent stand against it, desiring, no doubt, that this good deed should proceed, in the first instance, from your provident hand. But we, wishing to gratify the pious Christian emperors, and the illustrious Senate, and the capital of the empire, have judged that an Ecumenical Council was the fittest occasion for effecting this measure. Hence we have made bold to confirm the privileges of the afore-mentioned city (tharresantes ekurosamen) as if your holiness had taken the initiative, for we know how tenderly you love your children, and we feel that in honoring the child we have honored its parent…We have informed you of everything with a view of proving our sincerity, and of obtaining for our labors your confirmation and consent.” [22]
philvaz.com/apologetics/CouncilNicaeaSixthCanon.htm
They were doing this to preserve the unity of Christendom. Even with the pope’s refusal to accept Canon 28, the East put it into effect anyway.if one looks at St. Flavian’s letter to the Pope, and Anatolius’s and this and other related documents it seems pretty impressive to me
I don’t know about some of that. here is another statement from Chrysostom which I find interesting:I think I mentioned this elsewhere, but St. John Chrysostom was not in communion with Rome for the first 17 years of his Ordination. If he truly believed that Rome was the center of Christendom, then he would not have allowed himself to be ordained by Meletius, the bishop of Antioch with whom Rome and Alexandria were in schism. When he speaks of the Peter’s succession, he’s likely talking about how it’s received by all bishops.
.
And if one should say, ‘How then did James receive the throne of Jerusalem?,’ this I would answer that He appointed this man (Peter) teacher, not of that throne, but of the whole world." (Chrysostom, In Joan Hom).
Again, St. John Chrysostom could be talking about many things when he talks about Peter. Antioch (the diocese in which he was ordained and which was in schism with Rome at the time of his ordination) was and still is a claimant to Peter’s succession. In addition his statement that Peter is the teacher of the whole world seems highly suggestive of the idea that all bishops participate in the succession of Peter (who, like bishops was invested with the power to bind and loose), not that the succession of Peter is bound to Rome. St. John Chrysostom really leaves little evidence for the divine right of Rome to its primacy when you take what he wrote in the context of his actual life (in fact, when taken in context, much of what he writes seems to express an opinion to the contrary).“Peter, that head of the Apostles, the first in the Church, the friend of Christ, who received the revelation not from man but from the Father…this Peter, and when I say Peter, I mean the unbroken Rock, the unshaken foundation, the great apostle, the first of the disciples, the first called, the first to obey.” (De Eleemos III, 4, vol II, 298[300])
I don’t think that’s true at all. It’s not the refusal of the pope to sign on which caused those councils to be repudiated; that those councils were not repudiated by Rome’s refusal to sign on, they were repudiated by later councils expressing orthodox belief. Another thing to keep in mind is that the poor attendance of those councils alone is enough to make them look suspicious. During the Arian controversy, for example, both Rome and Alexandria held fast to the Nicene faith. Rome did not actually do much to end Arianism; it was only when Theodosius I, who subscribed to Nicene Christianity came into power that he decreed that all should follow Nicene Christianity and assembled the Second Ecumenical Council in order to settle the matter. The Second Council of Ephesus similarly it wasn’t illegitimate because the pope decided that it was so, it was illegitimate when the Council of Chalcedon decided that it was so.Antioch (in 341, where about 100 Eastern bishops approved of straight Arianism), Sirmium (in 351, where another 100 or so Eastern bishops espoused semi-Arianism), the Robber Council of Ephesus (in 449-450 which declared Monophysitism to be orthodox doctrine), the numerous “councils” in Constantinople (which included the patriarchs of Antioch, Alexandria, and Jerusalem, which declared Monophysitism to be orthodox), and the councils of Constantinople of 638 and 639 which approved of the Ecthesis, embracing Monothelitism. All these Councils could have been defined historically as “Ecumenical,” if it were not for Rome’s refusal to cooperate with them.
As for this, all I can say is that again, papal primacy is not in question, just the nature of that primacy; however, none of that flowery language is really supporting a divine right to papal supremacy; that would involve a reverse in causality. The statement is not saying that because the pope is the successor of Peter, his statement of faith is therefore orthodox in nature, it’s saying that due to the orthodox nature of his confession of faith, he has been divinely inspired by Peter and is worthy to be called a successor of Peter. Had he sent in some heretical monothelite confession of faith, which the council had found disagreeable, they might have put an anathema upon him too.these are from the Sixth Ecumenical Council:
The Sixth Ecumenical Council wrote to the Emperor: With us fought the Prince of the apostles for his imitator and successor is our protector, and he has declared unto us in his letter the secret of theology…And the ink shone, and** by Agatho Peter spoke.** (Mansi, xi, 658.)
The Council wrote to St Agatho: The greatest diseases require the greatest remedies…and therefore Christ our true God has given us Your Holiness as a wise physician, who firmly repellest the contagious plague of heresy by the antidotes of orthodoxy and bestowest health on the members of the Church. **And therefore we willingly leave what should be done to you, as occupying the first See of the Universal Church **and standing on the firm Rock of the Faith, having read through the writings of the true confession sent by Your Paternal Holiness to our most religious Emperor; which we recognize as divinely written from the chiefest Head of the apostles, and by which we have put to flight the dangerous opinions of the heresy which lately arose. (Mansi, xi, 683.)l
catholic-forum.com/members/popestleo/orthopopes.html
but the issue is how to distinguish them by an ecclesiological standard. someone might say “well a council is not Ecumenical if they teach falsely”. but this would seem to beg the question: “how do you know ecclesiologically that they have taught falsely?”The thing is that there’s no denying that the councils gave Rome primacy; it’s written quite clearly. What is in question is the nature of that primacy.
I don’t think that’s true at all. It’s not the refusal of the pope to sign on which caused those councils to be repudiated; that those councils were not repudiated by Rome’s refusal to sign on, they were repudiated by later councils expressing orthodox belief. )
I quite agree that the Pope has a responsibility to fulfill his role as the Successor of Simon Rock.As for this, all I can say is that again, papal primacy is not in question, just the nature of that primacy; however, none of that flowery language is really supporting a divine right to papal supremacy; that would involve a reverse in causality. The statement is not saying that because the pope is the successor of Peter, his statement of faith is therefore orthodox in nature, it’s saying that due to the orthodox nature of his confession of faith, he has been divinely inspired by Peter and is worthy to be called a successor of Peter…
One needs to remember the main reason for convening the Council of Nicaea, namely the Arian heresy. Arius was a priest under the authority of Bishop Alexander of Alexandria. Bishop Alexander had hoped the problem would just go away but eventually he had to excommunicate Arius. Arius went to Eusebius of Nicomedia for support and the problem got completely out of control.how do non-Catholics understand the Council of Nicea?
does it disprove the Catholic idea of Roman Primacy as some say?
Council of Nicaea Canon 6.
“Let the ancient usage throughout Egypt, Libya, and Pentapolis be strictly adhered to, so that the Bishop of Alexandria shall have jurisdiction over all these; since this is also the custom of the Bishop of Rome. In like manner, as regards Antioch and the other provinces, let each church retain its special privileges.” (Canon 6)
I think that when one looks at the patristic evidence one finds unanimous testimony the Primacy of Rome, not Antioch, which as I recall was a fountain of heresy at least at times.Again, St. John Chrysostom could be talking about many things when he talks about Peter. Antioch (the diocese in which he was ordained and which was in schism with Rome at the time of his ordination) was and still is a claimant to Peter’s succession. In addition his statement that Peter is the teacher of the whole world seems highly suggestive of the idea that all bishops participate in the succession of Peter (who, like bishops was invested with the power to bind and loose), not that the succession of Peter is bound to Rome.
interestingOne needs to remember the main reason for convening the Council of Nicaea, namely the Arian heresy. Arius was a priest under the authority of Bishop Alexander of Alexandria. Bishop Alexander had hoped the problem would just go away but eventually he had to excommunicate Arius. Arius went to Eusebius of Nicomedia for support and the problem got completely out of control.
The Patriarchy of the Bishop of Rome was well established, organized, and respected. Just as the creed was written in an attempt to end the Arian Heresy, this canon was probably designed to keep the peace by requiring every Patriarch to respect the authority of the other Patriarchs. Notice how it specifies the jurisdiction of the Bishop of Alexandria. Eusebius of Nicomedia should have never given refuge to Arius and taken sides in a matter that was outside his jurisdiction. The canon clearly wants all Patriarchs to be respected as the Patriarch of the West (the Pope). The is not a Papal issue this is a patriarch issue. It still like this today. Not only between Patriarchs, but also between Archdiocese. If a priest from India wants to work as a priest in New York he needs the permission of his Bishop as well as the Bishop in New York.