Council of Florence and annulment

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Nils

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In one of the famous interviews with bishop Fellay (SSPX), he says as follows:
When this document was delivered to me, I said: “No, I am not signing this; the Society is not going to sign.” I wrote to the Pope: “We cannot sign that,” explaining: “Until now—since we are not in agreement about the Council and since you wish, it seems, to recognize us—I had thought that you were ready to set aside the Council.” I gave an historical example, the one of the union with the Greeks at the Council of Florence, where they did not reach an agreement on the question of marriage annulment by reason of infidelity. The Orthodox think that this is a reason that can annul a marriage, the Catholic Church does not. They reached no agreement. What did they do? They left the problem to one side. One can see very clearly the difference between the Decree to the Armenians, where the question of marriage is mentioned, and the case of the Greek, where it is omitted. I made this reference while saying: “Perhaps you may do the same thing; perhaps you think it is more important to recognize us as Catholics than to insist on the Council. But now with the text that you are delivering to us, I think that I was mistaken. Tell us, then, really what you want. For among us these questions sow confusion.”
I do not (and please respect this) wish to discuss SSPX but rather what the bishop says about the Greeks and the Council of Florence. Does anyone know where I could find out more about this?

Yours,
Nils
 
In the East, the priest confects the Sacrament of Marriage. In the West, the couple confects the Sacrament of Marriage.

Annulments in the West often deal with lacking intent of those that confect the the Sacrament. Since our Eastern priests confect the Sacrament, we cannot call into question the intent. The Byzantine East to this very day do not issue any annulments because the validity of the Sacrament is dependent on the priest just as the validity of the Eucharistic Sacrifice. The SSPX bishop does not seem to understand this at all since he says “annul” when he should say, “divorce”. 🙂
 
Thank you for your reply!

If the Bishop is right, it looks like Rome in fact allowed the Greeks to practice divorce! Does anyone know anything about this?

Yours,
Nils
 
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