Council of Florence and Lyons II

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Calm down, nobody is attacking you or calling you a heretic 🤷
That was the calm version.
The comparison is valid.
No it isn’t.
I’m comparing like with like.
So you say, but do you know either communion well enough to actually judge that yourself? If you did, you would see why it is not an apt comparison.
How is the Oriental rejection of Chalcedon different from the Eastern orthodox rejection do Chalcedon? Chalcedon was deemed ecumenical despite rejection by Monophysites,Miaphysites and Nestorians but alas eastern orthodox argue that Lyons and Florence were not ecumenical because they rejected them… How are they different?
As I wrote in my reply, that is the only level at which they are comparable: Somebody said that they must accept these councils, and they said no. The substance of the rejection, that is to say the issues surrounding the respective councils and the reasons for their rejection by those who rejected them, are completely different and wholly unrelated to one another (as would be expected, as there is such a large lapse in time between Chalcedon and the two later councils you are asking about). Heck, Chalcedon is such a rabbit hole that the reasons within what would become known as the “Oriental Orthodox” communion differ between the individual churches, and the circumstances by which each came to reject the council are not uniform across the communion – e.g., the Armenians did not reject Chalcedon at the same time or place as the Egyptians, nor for all the same reasons (it is telling that the Armenians do not venerate our teacher HH St. Dioscorus, and as far as I can tell never have). So while I am in no way fit to judge the appropriateness of asking EO about their rejection of Florence and Lyons II, there really is nothing to gain by throwing Chalcedon in with them.
Clearly this question was not targeted at you because its concerning the Eastern Orthodox rationale of how their rejection of Lyon is different from the Oriental rejection.
By that logic, I might as well point out that clearly they’re not Oriental Orthodox, so they’re not fit to answer the question, either. (This isn’t their fault, though; it is a sign that it is a malformed question.)
The second part is aimed at eastern Catholics.
Yeah, I ignored that bit. The Eastern Catholics may answer for themselves. The Byzantine Chalcedonians are much less well-equipped to answer for the non-Chalcedonians, as discussed below.
Now not to be rude but before go on another rant, make sure the question is targeted at you or else you will find yourself having a debate with yourself.
Prefacing a rude statement with “not to be rude” doesn’t make that statement not rude. Might I suggest in a friendly, not ranting manner that asking about Oriental Orthodox rejection of a council (or Oriental Orthodox anything) ex opere operato invites Oriental Orthodox response, as it is inappropriate to leave such matters to be answered by those outside of the communion, particularly given the still highly contentious nature of Chalcedon as it relates to either communion’s acceptance of the other. You would be right, or at least logical, not to seek or expect a fair hearing from a Protestant on those matters that are most obviously contentious in Protestant-Catholic relations, and surely if someone was to take a Protestant’s explanation of Roman Catholic views on said matters, you would most reasonably interject that even with the best of intentions the explanation is likely not to be of the same quality or reflecting the same ethos as one would find in the explanation of an actual Roman Catholic. The Chalcedonian Byzantines are not Protestants, of course, but the same applies here. Likewise, if you were to ask me about hesychasm, or toll houses, or iconoclasm, or anything else that developed in the Byzantine Chalcedonian Orthodox Church subsequent to the members of my communion more or less being exiled stage left, I could try to give whatever kind of answer that I could find, but I would place very little confidence in it and you’d be better off just asking one of them directly. On this board, as in life, they are much more numerous than the non-Chalcedonians are, so I do not feel that it is in the slightest bit inappropriate to step up and attempt to stop another badly-designed thread from heaping scorn on my communion for essentially no reason. The question could be asked without any reference to non-Chalcedonians (and certainly without the ancient “Monophysite” slander), or Chalcedon itself, and really it would be a better question for having dropped any such attempted connection – a more informative and deeper question, for the reasons I’ve already elaborated on at length.

Please do not ask questions you do not actually want answers to.
 
eastern orthodox argue that Lyons and Florence were not ecumenical because they rejected them…
And, likewise, we (Catholics) say that the Fifth Council of Constantinople isn’t an Ecumenical Council because we reject it.
 
And, likewise, we (Catholics) say that the Fifth Council of Constantinople isn’t an Ecumenical Council because we reject it.
P.S. Of course, many Catholics would not say “because we reject it” but rather “because the pope rejects it”, i.e. no one else’s approval or disapproval matters except the pope’s. But I presented the less ultramontane version.
 
What is the difference between the Monophysite rejection of the Council of Chalcedon and the Orthodox rejection of the The second council of Lyons and the council of Florence?

What makes the Orthodox different from the Monophysites?

Secondly do eastern Catholics view these two reunion councils as ecumenical? Why or why not?
If we avoid all the landmines present in the question; the simple answer would be that since they believe the West is in schism we can’t have valid councils.🤷
 
What is the difference between the Monophysite rejection of the Council of Chalcedon and the Orthodox rejection of the The second council of Lyons and the council of Florence?

What makes the Orthodox different from the Monophysites?

Secondly do eastern Catholics view these two reunion councils as ecumenical? Why or why not?
As far as I have been able to discover, the Orthodox have no standard for recognising ecumenical councils, so I highly doubt you will find any substantial answer to your question. The best I have heard is that a council is ecumenical “when it is accepted by the whole Church.” But that, of course, would preclude even Nicaea from the list, let alone Chalcedon. I personally can’t see any difference between the EO rejection of Florence and the OO rejection of Chalcedon.
 
As far as I have been able to discover, the Orthodox have no standard for recognising ecumenical councils, so I highly doubt you will find any substantial answer to your question. The best I have heard is that a council is ecumenical “when it is accepted by the whole Church.” But that, of course, would preclude even Nicaea from the list, let alone Chalcedon. I personally can’t see any difference between the EO rejection of Florence and the OO rejection of Chalcedon.
This was addressed in earlier posts on this thread.
 
P.S. Of course, many Catholics would not say “because we reject it” but rather “because the pope rejects it”, i.e. no one else’s approval or disapproval matters except the pope’s. But I presented the less ultramontane version.
Many individual Latin Catholics would reduce it to a simple matter of papal ‘approval’ or ‘rejection’ - but not all of us! And I would bet you every last penny I have that Pope Francis would agree that it isn’t that simple. So would Pope Emeritus Benedict for that matter. The official Latin position is more nuanced than most make it out to be. Vatican II was clear, at least to me, that it is the Pope with the bishops, not apart from them as a lone ranger, that constitutes the Church’s teaching authority. The problem with Vatican I is that it was cut short before the Fathers could clearly outline the relationship between the Bishop of Rome and the rest of the episcopate and an oversimplification of the Council’s teachings became ingrained in the Latin collective consciousness…
 
Many individual Latin Catholics would reduce it to a simple matter of papal ‘approval’ or ‘rejection’ - but not all of us! And I would bet you every last penny I have that Pope Francis would agree that it isn’t that simple. So would Pope Emeritus Benedict for that matter. The official Latin position is more nuanced than most make it out to be. Vatican II was clear, at least to me, that it is the Pope with the bishops, not apart from them as a lone ranger, that constitutes the Church’s teaching authority. The problem with Vatican I is that it was cut short before the Fathers could clearly outline the relationship between the Bishop of Rome and the rest of the episcopate and an oversimplification of the Council’s teachings became ingrained in the Latin collective consciousness…
Agreed it’s not that simple, but I have to say this: Rome had every opportunity at Vatican II to clarify the whole mess from 1870 and yet did absolutely nothing about it. To me, that says volumes. So does the fact that none of the inter-conciliar Pontiffs has opened his mouth in a meaningful way either. They all just sit there, basking in the status-quo. 🤷
 
If the presence of individual monophysites (condemned, contemptible, heretical as they are) among the non-Chalcedonians is enough to maintain, despite the evidence of clear condemnations of their position by historical and contemporary Patriarchs of Alexandria and Antioch (see my earlier post with quotes from St. Dioscorus, St. Severus, et al.), that it is proper to continue using the term “monophysite”, then the Roman Catholics ought to be slandered likewise due to condemned individuals and ideas found in their environs (say, all Protestants, Unitarians, etc.); we should treat Constantinople II as though it never happened and condemn the dyophysites (both Latin and Byzantines) for the Nestorian or semi-Nestorian Christology that some who accepted the Tome professed (Nestorius himself is said to have thought that the Tome expressed his own Christology in an acceptable fashion), etc.

To me, this does not seem like a good way to go. Et tu, Wandile?
 
If the presence of individual monophysites (condemned, contemptible, heretical as they are) among the non-Chalcedonians is enough to maintain, despite the evidence of clear condemnations of their position by historical and contemporary Patriarchs of Alexandria and Antioch (see my earlier post with quotes from St. Dioscorus, St. Severus, et al.), that it is proper to continue using the term “monophysite”, then the Roman Catholics ought to be slandered likewise due to condemned individuals and ideas found in their environs (say, all Protestants, Unitarians, etc.); we should treat Constantinople II as though it never happened and condemn the dyophysites (both Latin and Byzantines) for the Nestorian or semi-Nestorian Christology that some who accepted the Tome professed (Nestorius himself is said to have thought that the Tome expressed his own Christology in an acceptable fashion), etc.

To me, this does not seem like a good way to go. Et tu, Wandile?
You are looking for a fight where there isn’t one. I called Monophysites, Monophysites. I never called you Miaphysites (Oriental Orthodox), Monophysite . So I don’t know where your objection is coming from.

You do realize that Miaphysites aren’t the only people who are/were non-chalcedonian? The Monophysites were not a small group of people by any stretch of the imagination

So no, you can’t condemn us for a Christology we never embraced. Nestorius Read the txt incorrectly. Doesn’t make it Nestorian at all as the fathers who accepted the very same tome, condemned the Nestorian heresy.
 
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