Council of Jerusalem

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Hi!

I was wondering: Is there any evidence of Peter’s papal authority at the first Church council, the Council of Jerusalem in Acts 15?

He does speak at the council, but it seems to me that James has more authority at the council? I’m confused :confused:

Thanks and God bless,
 
…Peter’s authority came directly from Christ. I can’t see (and I don’t know) weather or not it’s mentioned at the first council being relevant to his authority. He was appointed by the CEO… 👍
 
James had authority **because **the council took place in his diocese. But James clearly makes his decision based upon Peter’s statement and how it coincides with the Scriptures.
 
Peter settled the issue at hand. James had a pastoral concern about implementation
 
I was wondering: Is there any evidence of Peter’s papal authority at the first Church council, the Council of Jerusalem in Acts 15?
papal authority, no. apostolic authority, yes.
 
Hi!

I was wondering: Is there any evidence of Peter’s papal authority at the first Church council, the Council of Jerusalem in Acts 15?

He does speak at the council, but it seems to me that James has more authority at the council? I’m confused :confused:

Thanks and God bless,
Actually there is. Remember that Scripture must support Scripture, and since Scripture clearly demonstrates Peter’s primacy the Council of Jerusalem must be read in that context. So when you read Scripture you must ask yourself not only what is the author saying but also illustrating in the text.

First, what is the council deciding? Whether or not the gentiles should be circumcised. Okay, what next, after much debate, Peter stands up and addresses the assembly. Now think about that; if James was the authority why would Peter stand and speak first? Why you might ask? One, Peter has primacy over the apostles bestowed upon him by Christ. Two, Peter is always mentioned first among the apostles in Scripture indicating his primacy. Three, the writer wants to be congruent with the rest of Scripture and show that Peter is mentioned first.

Now here’s the key part. What is the first sentence that Peter says? Pay close attention now. He says from the earliest days God chose HIM, among the rest of the apostles, to covert the Gentiles. So the gentiles were entrusted to Peter by God. Since the gentiles were entrusted to Peter by God the gentiles are Peters domain. It is Peter’s prerogative then, to decide what is to be done with them, and that is what happens. Peter stands up and tells everyone what should be done. Then there was silence. Paul and Barnabas spoke about the signs and wonders that God worked through them. Then James being the Bishop of Jerusalem wholeheartedly agrees with Peter’s initial decision. When James says , “I judge therefore,” he is not invoking supreme authority over Peter. He’s actually saying “I am firmly of the opinion therefore”. Hope that helps
 
Actually there is. Remember that Scripture must support Scripture, and since Scripture clearly demonstrates Peter’s primacy the Council of Jerusalem must be read in that context. So when you read Scripture you must ask yourself not only what is the author saying but also illustrating in the text.

First, what is the council deciding? Whether or not the gentiles should be circumcised. Okay, what next, after much debate, Peter stands up and addresses the assembly. Now think about that; if James was the authority why would Peter stand and speak first? Why you might ask? One, Peter has primacy over the apostles bestowed upon him by Christ. Two, Peter is always mentioned first among the apostles in Scripture indicating his primacy. Three, the writer wants to be congruent with the rest of Scripture and show that Peter is mentioned first.

Now here’s the key part. What is the first thing that Peter says? Pay close attention now. He says from the earliest days God chose HIM, among the rest of the apostles, to convert the Gentiles. So the gentiles were entrusted to Peter by God. Since the gentiles were entrusted to Peter by God the gentiles are Peter’s domain. It is Peter’s prerogative then, to decide what is to be done with them, and that is exactly what he does. Peter stands up and tells everyone (with his authority) what should be done. Then there was silence. Paul and Barnabas spoke about the signs and wonders that God worked through them. Then James being the Bishop of Jerusalem wholeheartedly agrees with Peter’s initial decision. When James says , “I judge therefore,” he is not invoking supreme authority over Peter. He’s actually saying “I am firmly of the opinion therefore”. Hope that helps

If you look closely verse 20 shows who decided. It says the apostles, elders and the whole church, in that order, just as the beginning of Acts 15. So the apostles are mentioned first because of their authority. And who’s the head of the apostles?
 
When James says, “it is my judgement therefore” in verse 19 he is not invoking his authority over Peter but rather stating his firm opinion in agreement with Peter. I’ll use an example with the word judgement. “It is my judgment therefore, that you have misinterpreted this passage of Scripture.” See what I mean? I use the term judgement not in the context of enforcing my authority but as one of discernment to state my opinion (based on my sound mind).

Verse 20 shows: “Then the apostles and presbyters, in agreement with the whole church, DECIDED to choose representatives and to send them to Antioch with Paul and Barnabas. The ones chosen were Judas, who was called Barsabbas, and Silas, leaders among the brothers.”

So you must read carefully. It saysTHE APOSTLES, PRESBYTERS (elders), in agreement with the WHOLE CHURCH DECIDED to choose representatives, and then after they chose them, they sent them. It lists the apostles first as it does at the beginning of Acts 15 because they are the bishops, then under them the presbyters, then the whole church. So you can see the hierarchy. The apostles are mentioned first because they are the leaders of the Church, and who is the leader of the apostles? Peter
 
sorry, I meant verse 22 shows who decided.

and verse 25 says,“we have with one accord decided to choose representatives and to send them to you along with our beloved Barnabas and Paul,”
Notice how it doesn’t say,“our brother James has decreed” but rather “we have with one accord decided”.
 
So Peter, with his authority, led the council with his speech as to what should be done with the gentiles since they were entrusted to him by God. Later, James wholeheartedly agrees with what Peter has said, and then the entire church also agrees with what Peter has stated. This is what verse 25 means when it says “we have with one accord decided”. They all agreed with Peter’s initial’s proclamation that he led with. So Peter in fact led the council.

This is the context in which it is to be read, that is, congruent with the rest of Scripture. The same Scripture that clearly indicates Peter’s primacy among the apostles.
 
Acts 22:2

looking at this, and see where the New International Bible has “Aramaic” in its translation, where the ESV bible has “Hebrew.”

How can you possibly get both Aramaic and Hebrew from the original Greek?
 
Acts 22:2

looking at this, and see where the New International Bible has “Aramaic” in its translation, where the ESV bible has “Hebrew.”

How can you possibly get both Aramaic and Hebrew from the original Greek?
I’ll take a stab at it.

Could it be better translated as, “When they heard him addressing them in the Hebrew language, which is Aramaic, they became all the more quiet”.
 
I’ll take a stab at it.

Could it be better translated as, “When they heard him addressing them in the Hebrew language, which is Aramaic, they became all the more quiet”.
That’s it. When folks speak of Ἑβραΐδι ('Ebraidi) or Ἑβραϊστί ('Ebraisti), they usually meant “the language of the Hebrews,” whatever it happened to be at the time. It does not necessarily have to mean the Semitic language we know today as ‘Hebrew’ (though we do know that Hebrew was still spoken in some areas at this period in history).
 
Acts 22:2

looking at this, and see where the New International Bible has “Aramaic” in its translation, where the ESV bible has “Hebrew.”

How can you possibly get both Aramaic and Hebrew from the original Greek?
What does this have to do with the Council of Jerusalem? :confused:
papal authority, no. apostolic authority, yes.
Uh… :hmmm: Care to elaborate? It seems to me that, based on things like those pointed out by Sime, the Council of Jerusalem does, in fact, present evidence in favor of both apostolic authority and papal authority. But, if you disagree, we’d all love to hear your reasoning…
 
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