Why does the Council of Jerusalem (Acts 15) retain the prohibitions on eating blood, meat containing blood, and meat of animals not properly slain? These are parts of the ceremonial law, if I am not mistaken. Why would the Church leaders make Jewish Christians and Gentile Christians follow even a part of the mosaic ceremonial law? When was this command abrogated? Is there a place in the bible where it is abrogated?
In relation to this, the command to refrain from “porneia” (immorality) may be in the same vein as the other commands, ie, related to Jewish Law.
From a paperback i have, “Catholics and Orthodox, can they unite?”, wriitten by Clement C Englert, C.SS.R., copyright 1961, the author makes a good case that “porneia” is the greek translation of the Hebrew word describing a marriage invalid by Jewish Laws.
Clement Englert uses as his reference the scholarly work by Father J. Bonsirven, S.J., “Le Divorce dans le Nouveau Testament” (Paris 1948) where Father Bonsirven clearly shows that porneia means “concubinage”. The main arguments follow.
(I am going to paraphrase and shorten some of the arguments the author presents.)
One place to see this is in 1 Cor 5:1 where a man is “reprobated” for marrying his stepmother. Paul uses “porneia” there.
Further, examining the results of the Jerusalem council, we see that one of the things that gentiles were to refrain from was “porneia”. Why would they be required not to be immoral in any case? Wouldn’t that be a given for all races? How would that be infringing on the consciences of Jews, as strangled animals and blood would be?
Lastly, in the epistle to the Hebrews 12:16, Esau was called immoral (pornos) although we find no mention of his sexual sins… However we do know that he married a Hittite woman.
Finally, this use of the word by Jesus in his admonition against divorce except in cases of “porneia”, seems to mean in cases where the couple were never married validly by Jewish Law…
peace
steve