W
WillP
Guest
I understand the question of whether Christ had biological brothers arises as a result of the non existence of a word for fraternal brothers in the Greek. Is that so? I do not speak Greek, but, I know it to be a sophisticated language and a language of classical literature. I must therefore think that Greek is a language which has (and has had for eons) a word which differentiates biological siblings from more generic kins folk.
Or, is the problem thought to arise from the non existence of such a word in the Arameric spoken by the apostles? But, as the NT is written in Greek (not in the original Arameric) then what evidence is there that the Greek translators got it wrong? One would think that the Greek scribe would have gotten the sense of the relationship correctly when he inscripted it in the original Greek particularly as the writings are said to be inspired and influenced by a guiding spirit.
What is the explanation and what evidence supports the explanation?
Or, is the problem thought to arise from the non existence of such a word in the Arameric spoken by the apostles? But, as the NT is written in Greek (not in the original Arameric) then what evidence is there that the Greek translators got it wrong? One would think that the Greek scribe would have gotten the sense of the relationship correctly when he inscripted it in the original Greek particularly as the writings are said to be inspired and influenced by a guiding spirit.
What is the explanation and what evidence supports the explanation?