Critics of Papal Infallibility: Can you name other examples of popes making fallible decisions apart from Honorius I?

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You are tired! You spelled tomorrow with two m’s! 😃 I never thought I’d see the day when Gabriel doesn’t have the energy to write a twelve-page post all night long. You’re losing it, Gabe! 😛
Maybe tommorrow tired, good night all and God bless.
 
Ok, let’s try this again; I quoted John17 as to when Jesus prayed for the apostles, this has nothing to do with infallibility. I was speaking to another poster in regards to Jesus praying for Peter, and also for the other apostles in John 17.

What you are not sure of Jesus not speaking for the college of Bishops is because you have taken one single scripture and ripped out of context from the whole of John 17. I did not give a single quote from John 17, I gave John 17 meaning the whole context deals with the college of bishops in unity… never mind.🤷

For a detail description of the Church teachings regarding what I quoted here see Vatican II, Lumen gentium, 19, find St. Augustines teaching on John 17 “all”, He also teaches thus. Better yet, read a biblical commentary to John 17 “all” from the latest translation in the Navarre bible. Instead of taking scriptures individually out of context from the whole prayer of Jesus to arrive at a conclusion of uncertainty, take in the whole of scripture dealing with the subject.

Lord have Mercy, Christ have Mercy, Lord have Mercy

Peace be with you
I didn’t take it out of context. I gave several other scriptures to show that Jesus never expected the plan to go beyond the lifetime of those He was speaking to. When Jesus says “I do not ask on behalf of these alone, but for those also who believe in Me through their word", that means all who hear the message from the apostles at that time. There was no written gospel. Let’s be careful not to put a Catholic interpretation on everything. Remember: Augustine pushed limbo on the Church and now it’s a theological hypothesis. That’s how this ties into infallibility.
 
From a secular point of view, you are right that a stand in does not negate being co-equal. If I go to the clinic and my regular doc is not there, I can be seen by another doc.

But a this is a vicar according to that of the Davidic Kingdom, upon whose throne the Eternal Son sits. The vicar of the David Kingdom is not equal to the King. He has only what authority he is given by the King.

You clearly have a misunderstanding about dogma. The Church is not at liberty to “create” doctrines. She can only proclaim and clarify what was given to her by Christ. Nothing can be “added” to the divine deposit of faith that was once for all given to the Church. These things already exist in God’s Word. It may seem to you as if they are “added” because you received an abbreviated version of the gospel in the first place. Your spiritual ancestors cut themselves off from the part of God’s Word that was living in the Church. They did this to separate themselves from the corruption they observed in the leadership…

Yes, but Peter was given the responsibility to teach the WHOLE gospel. This responsibility to feed the sheep was passed on to his successor, and he to his up until the present day. The Gospel is “all that Jesus began to do and to teach”, some of which was not written down. For many modern American Evangelicals “the Gospel” is reduced to a very abbreviated version of how to get “saved”. But for Peter and the other Apostles, it meant teaching people how to live in this world, and how to be prepared to join Christ in the next.

The diet for the sheep changes across times and cultures. The Apostles were given the authority to manage that diet. This is why Tetzel and other wolves among the sheep are so dangerous. They feed the flock a poisonous diet.

Part of tending the sheep is protecting them from harm. Harm comes in the form of heresies and other sins. I can’t understand who you think is “lording” anything over the flock.

The application of rules is part of tending the flock. Not all the rules have been the best ones, and sometimes they have needed change. The rules are not part of the infallible deposit, that is why they change. If you don’t believe that God gave His Apostels the authority to do this, I don’t know what to tell you. There are so many rules of this kind in scripture it would be hard to count them all, like haircuts, headcoverings, not eating meat sacrificed to idols, etc.

Yes, of course! But what you are saying is that the shepherd Jesus appointed does not have the authority to carry out the task God gave him 🤷
So as a Catholic you believe that the Holy Spirit is insufficient and a man is needed to fufill what HE was sent to do?

John 14
26But the Counselor, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach you all things and will remind you of everything I have said to you

I agree that the Church does not have liberties to create Dogmas, but she has. The Mary Dogmas did not exist - there is no proof they existed.

Infallibility did not exist in the early Church- again no proof.

Where did GOD say make up new dogmas? Or is that an oral tradition secretly passed down through the years until it was proclaimed? When the sheperd adds requirements of salvation not laid out in the Gospel - correct the authority is not there.

lol!! “the Gospel” is reduced to a very abbreviated version of how to get “saved”. So now we mere Christians do not now how to live a godly life?

teaching people how to live in this world, and how to be prepared to join Christ in the next
. That is all about our salvation.

So as a Catholic GOD’s Word is insufficient in teaching people how to live in this world, and how to be prepared to join Christ in the next.
 
“Theotokos” Mary is Mother of God, against the persistance of arian heresy and the nestorius hersey which denied Jesus nature as fully human and fully divine. Council of Ephesus 431 a.d

The council held at Chalcedon in 451 a.d promulgated this “Theotokos” decision and made it “DOGMA”.

Mary Mother of God “dogma”, was able to seperate all the sheep from the goats. This Marian dogma proclaimed by the Early Church Fathers and councils protected and kept the apostolic Catholic church revelations and teachings handed down from Jesus and His apostles from error and disarray into heresies.
The 2 natures of Christ is in Scripture you don’t need Mary being proclaimed mother of GOD to see the Scripture proof.

Why not just point to and teach the various verses in Scripture that point to Jesus’ 2 natures? Why does man feel the need to add to GOD’s Word?

I believe that Mary was born a sinner like all of us, yet can see through Scripture proof that Jesus does in fact does have 2 natures- am I a goat or sheep?

That is one part how about the other parts-immaculate conception, assumption, co-redeemer? ** What heresies did these stop?**
 
When my Giants win another World Series game and are up 2-0 after spanking the heck out of Texas, I am in such a good mood that even I can sit here and watch this mind-numbing papacy debate go on and on into oblivion with resolute patience! 😃
Your joy in your Giants is a pleasnt resting spot amidst all the flurry of challenging words.But those Giants ,wow! They are gonna do it ! The Giants win the series! The Giants win the series!
 
Can you name the source that records Constantine ordering 50 bibles to be made? I am trying very hard not to laugh at this, because if you Knew how difficult it was for the Catholic church to canonize the bible which took centuries. And then Constantine lift the persecution laws against the Catholic Church and just order 50 bibles?
 
An annuled marriage never took place, and the person is free to marry. If a wife dies while in a sacramental marriage, the husband is free from the convenant because a death has occurred, releasing the husband from his matrimony and free to marry if he so choses.

I honestly dont’ know about you, Shaky. I am thinking there must be a community college nearby where you can take a class in writing.

Or, it is time to swear off those nightcaps!

It seems like you are asking the same question again when the answer is contained right in your post! That makes me think you are not reading carefully.

Can you look at what was posted above your question, and tell us what “anullment” means?

How can a person get “another wife” when one has not had a first one?
Hi guanophore

I still have not had my question answered. My question is being misunderstood.

I am Asking. HOW WOULD THIS AFFECT A PERSON BECOMEING A BISHOP??
 
QUOTE=Gabriel of 12;7212980]
The Catholic church has always taught Jesus is Rock. There is no need to mention Peter when the Early Church Fathers are teaching about Jesus is Rock
. So the catholic church has always taught Jesus is the Rock and Peter is the Rock ?
Peter is mentioned many times from St.Paul, St. Ignatius, St. Irenaeus always to prove that their teachings are authentic and they come from God, because Peter is the apostle mentioned by name to authenticate their apostolic teachings period
St. Paul never mentions Peter as authenticating Paul’s teachings .Paul says no man , not even Peter taught him but Christ. Iraneus also mentions Paul as an equal to Peter in authenticating the Gospel.
Now these early church Fathers are authenticated universally because they are Catholic Saints.
Circular.
Had they had differing opinions of Peter as do protestants to today, they would of never reached Sainthood in the Catholic church.
My way or the highway , top down worldly style style of governance. I do not think Paul and Iraneus and Ignatius had the same dogma on Peter . Popery evolved at best. Show me a text from Ignatius that said Peter is universal bishop, or above all the other apostles . I am not sure Iraneus even says this.
So it is by their professed Catholic faith, their prayer for the Popes in their times at the altar. This is proof beyond the shadows of doubt, if you just look without prejudiced eyes.
Do not follow your logic and what proof ?
I don’t see any reason to mention the Popes status when he was not present at Council.
I believe it was a full church council ,and the Popes delegates were their ,and indeed had some of its business “passed” .It is pertinent that the council said the Pope did not have primacy in the east.
What you see here from the council of Chalcedon is the grabbing of power from a new office called the “Patriarch” of Constantinople which usurped authority over the Eastern Church’s mentioned, which “Patriarch” is never a divine office instituted by Jesus Christ as is the office of Peter (Pope) and the office of Bishops.
Perhaps ,but they were only doing what Rome was doing .I think they never had Rome’s interpretation of Matt 16.Never.Which makes me think it was not a universal teaching ever .That Constantinople was power hungry may be true ,but if Matt 16 is not your way ,then it is hypocritical for Rome to cry foul.I might say Constantinople learned from Rome .This was the new Game ,the church hooked up with politics .Why else would the church give a hoot where the Empire had it’s capital .Was not the Empires’ move to Constantinople not liked by the pope ? Why ? Who cares.Patriarch may not be a God office , but there ended up being five -which sounds more democratic and logistical .Remember , to the East , there was no such thing as head pope either.
Can you name the source that records Constantine ordering 50 bibles to be made? I am trying very hard not to laugh at this, because if you Knew how difficult it was for the Catholic church to canonize the bible which took centuries. And then Constantine lift the persecution laws against the Catholic Church and just order 50 bibles?
Lol ? Yes. It was the Catholic church that preserved this bit of history . Google has plenty of sources on this ,including Catholic. I believe most of our new testament was cannonized in blood for the Empereor before outlawed Christianity’s books , went around confiscating them and burning them,and it’s posessers .Yes, new testament bibles were being burned after the turn of the century- 303A.D…How about the Muratorian Cannon ,which according to Catholic ency. had 22-23 of 27 N.T. books listed , around 170-180 A.D… Why not ,scripture was finished before 100A.D…Rome had fantastic roads too,and peace in the lands of the Empire (news and books could travel fast)
Constantine or the Eastern Emperors always sought the approval of the Pope
Not sure you are right.He did not consult the bishop of Rome before calling the council of Nicea, except perhaps to give him an invitation as all the other bishops of the Empire.That an emperor would consult any leader of any institution is to be expected ,but that Rome had primacy in 4th century , I do not think so .
 
david ruiz;7212720:
Wrong, The simple fact is that the disciples were already practising oral teaching before the bible was put together! How was the message spread before the bible was compiled around 400 ad? And also if what you say is true, how are we to determine what is the correct interpretation and what isn’t? Unfortunately I have a choice of 30+ thousand protestant denominations to choose from if I were to leave the Catholic faith. Jesus was the word, if he wanted us go by the bible alone why did he not give us the bible while he was on earth?
Hi Louie Jesus is the Word of God .We live by every Word that proceedeth from His mouth .No one ever said everything God ever spoke is in the Bible .This is in PERFECT harmony with my position. His written Word is PERFECT in truth and Perfect unto salvation .He speaks to a lost soul thru His word ,his message .The words then become personal, a rayma word. I become born-again ,beginning a relationship with God Almighty-He sups with me ,and I hear words ,that yes, are NOT in the bible. But they are in harmony with it , that He loves me and wants me to live holy , and to do this or that .He speaks to me , as St. Augustine says .So you are right .Not all is written.But everything He says and does and writes is ONE.The church is built by people who have had this experience ,who are "Christian "-in Christ…John NEVER said he left out teachings of Christ cause they would not fit in any sized book .He does say , he did not write all the things Jesus DID…Your treatment of the Jerusalem council is a private interpretation , that scripture was not used and Peter made the declaration or ruling .Peter did NOT chair the meeting .Peter did not rule or make the decision .Peter testified to what God said (to Him personally) and what God did (save the gentiles with no religion or church or sacrament but by preaching and faith). Peter did not use scripture but he stated what God did and said ,which qualifies to be as good as scripture for it is all ONE,unified (what God is ,does and says). He certainly did not cite a tradition, or what he decided because of his office .Paul also testified to the same .Verse 13 says James then the quoted scripture ( Amos 9:11-“That all gentiles might seek after the Lord…”) and pronounced that gentiles do not need to be circumcised. James made the ruling .James quoted scripture ,to rectify ,correct , trump, coral “tradition” of circumcision…Look ,Peter is first among equals ,just not above them ,as Christ wanted, in my scriptural opinion…You like oral tradition so much ,why do we need the bible at all ? Really why ? You have Peter as Vicar ,who can not err .You have his successors ,ditto.You have Fathers who begin writing about traditions,and they started with infallible leaders .You do not need scripture …No one is denying the oral presenting of the gospel . It goes on today.You say let it be by church dictates .I say let it be by the written Word of God …We will always have to decide something , which church , which tradition, which bible, even which of the 30,000, oh heck, 50,000 denominations, etc., etc.,etc… Guess we need to be born again and receive a rayma word , as Peter did , when Jesus told him ,“the Father in heaven has revealed this to you” .We will never get away from our testing and the age old question of ,“Hath God really said…” “There is nothing new under the heavens”…Lord help us.
 
All believers? Read John 17, this consecration that Jesus gives to His apostles and those after them does not apply to all believers. Learning your scriptures from an Apostolic Catholic Tradition will help you see things more clearly between divine authority and the laity. It will remove any doubt.
We are all called to be persona Christi , imitators , even of Paul (Philippians4). We are the visible body of the invisible Christ here on earth.What office you hold is inconsequential…As far as I know , Peter nor Paul held confessionals…I can certainly forgive your faults against me , but if I give the gospel message by His power and spirit ,and you blaspheme the Holy Spirit, it is retained and can not be forgiven ,even by God,on the judgement day.
[/QUOTE]
 
Just for Teacher Gurney;

Catholic definition of a “valid” sacrament; Christ Glorified… pouring out the Holy Spirit on his Body which is the Church, Christ now acts through the sacraments He instituted to communicate His Grace. The sacraments are perceptiple signs (words and actions) accessible to our human nature. By the action of Christ and the power of the Holy Spirit they make present “efficaciously” the grace that they signify. CCC 1084

…Efficaciously because in them (sacraments) Christ himself is at work; it is He who baptises, He who acts in His sacraments in order to communicate the grace that each sacrament signifies…CCC 1127

“Sacraments are an outward visible sign instituted by Jesus Christ in order to part grace to the believer”. Christ instituted the sacraments of the new law CCC1210

Jesus placed marriage back to its original design from Genesis where the two become one flesh. He elevated marriage to a sacrament by infusing His Grace in the power of the Holy Spirit when “What God has joined together let no man put asunder”.

This is when God raised marriage to a sacrament; Mark 10:4
They replied, “Moses permitted him to write a bill of divorce and dismiss her.”
6
But from the beginning of creation, ‘God made them male and female.
7
For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother (and be joined to his wife),
8
and** the two shall become one flesh.’ So they are no longer two but one flesh.**
9
**Therefore what God has joined together, no human being must separate." **

Matthew 19:3
Some Pharisees approached him, and tested him, 4 saying, “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any cause whatever?”
4
5 He said in reply, **“Have you not read that from the beginning the Creator ‘made them male and female’ **5
and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’?
6
**So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore, what God has joined together, no human being must separate.” **7
6 They said to him, “Then why did Moses command that the man give the woman a bill of divorce and dismiss (her)?”
8
He said to them, “Because of the hardness of your hearts Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, **but from the beginning it was not so. 9
I say to you, 7
whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful) and marries another commits adultery.” **
Did Jesus actually elevate it to a sacrament by only allowing one marriage? I often hear the Catholic argument that it was elevated to a sacrament because of Christ’s officiating at the Wedding of Cana? Still those like Luther adhere to the more strict understanding of what a sacrament is: Christ-instituted, must have a visible outward sign, must have an inner deep grace in it given by God.

I am not going to comment on Luther’s view of denial. Marriage before Jesus was born had fallen from Grace (the Holy Spirit had not come yet) which is not the way God originally designed marriage between **a **man and **a **woman. After the fall marriage had no grace, because Jesus Christ had not come yet to redeem man, and place Grace upon Grace and through His Word elevated Marriage to a sacrament by infusing His life into His sacrament.

Paul answers your question better than I; Ephesians 5:23
For the husband is head of his wife just as Christ is head of the church, he himself the savior of the body.
24
As the church is subordinate to Christ, so wives should be subordinate to their husbands in everything.
25
**Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ loved the church and handed himself over for her /**B]26
to sanctify her, cleansing her by the bath of water with the word,
27
that he might present to himself the church in splendor, without spot or wrinkle or any such thing, that she might be holy and without blemish.
28
So (also) husbands should love their wives as their own bodies. He who loves his wife loves himself.
29
For no one hates his own flesh but rather nourishes and cherishes it, even as Christ does the church,
30
because we are members of his body.
31
**“For this reason a man shall leave (his) father and (his) mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh.”
32
This is a great mystery, but I speak in reference to Christ and the church. **
33
In any case, each one of you should love his wife as himself, and the wife should respect her husband.
So, for example, the Eucharist is a sacrament. Why?
 
cont; In the Old Testament existed marriages such as an “errebu marriage”. Moses and Jacob entered this type of marriage when the wife does not join the husband, but the husband becomes the member of wifes family; Exodus 2:31, 3:1.

There is also a “Nuzu marriage” when Laban who had no sons adopted Jacob who married his daughter and made him heir after Laban begot sons, Jacob was given a portion of Labans wealth.

Then there is the marriage by capture recorded in Judges 21

God created marriage between a man and a woman “only” from the beginning. Man fell from grace and with it fell the communion between man, woman and God. Jesus returned marriage to its original design between a man and a woman to be one flesh and then elevated it to a sacrament by infusing His Grace through the Holy Spirit; when Jesus states “what God has joined together let no man seperated”. That is why the Catholic church has never believed in nor practiced divorce from a sacramental marriage, because the Catholic church has no power to seperate what God has joined together.
As far as the Jewish part of your post, that’s debatable. I’ve read many views about ancient Israeli views of marriage. Sex was usually a requirement. People didn’t just marry for custom or social reasons. IN fact, the “onah” was the man’s OBLIGATION to give his wife sexual pleasure. But you’re correct in that women not married by the age of twenty were considered “cursed by God.” So there was a social urgency but I think a sexual one was understood. Procreation was also a key component as childbirth was an enormous gift of God in the eyes of the Hebrew people. And the Torah and Talmud discuss the importance of love, respect, and honoring one’s wife. So a Jewish marriage had little difference from Catholic marriage except the possibility of a dissolution of marriage due to adultery and a few other reasons. Both valued love, procreation, and teaching godly ways to their kids as well as faithfulness as the main virtues of a marriage. So, did Jesus establish marriage or was it already established?
Interesting issue to ponder, study, and pray about in any case…

Peace be with you
 
Hi guanophore
I still have not had my question answered. My question is being misunderstood.
A man chosen to the bishophoric if married can never remarry, if he was married before becoming bishop and his marriage was annuled, this does not prevent him becoming bishop. What need to be said here once a man enters holy orders in the state he is in, being married or single will remain that way the rest of his days as bishop either as being married or single.

Especially when one is chosen by God to be a successor to the apostles in the bishops office can only be married once. Or remain single after being called to the Episcopacy.

Now there may be some variations between the Eastern and Western traditions, but I tried to cover them both here from the early centuries. Suffice to say; The Western Catholic Church has maintained unmarried Popes, Bishops and priests for a few exceptions from converts.

Other than what has already been revealed here, I hope this helps, if not? maybe rephrase the question?
 
What line of work are you in, if you don’t mind me asking, Gabriel?
 
So as a Catholic you believe that the Holy Spirit is insufficient and a man is needed to fufill what HE was sent to do?
No. As a Catholic I believe that the HS desires to fulfill His plan in, with, and through humans.

I am curious what you think, Schaick. What do you believe the Apostle means when he says that he makes up what is lacking in the sufferings of Christ?
John 14
26But the Counselor, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach you all things and will remind you of everything I have said to you
This promise was only made to the Church, Schaick. Those who depart from her are no longer able to inherit the promise.
I agree that the Church does not have liberties to create Dogmas, but she has. The Mary Dogmas did not exist - there is no proof they existed.
You are confused, Schaick. Dogma is, in fact, what the Church creates. This is done to clarify and define what the doctrine of the Aposltes is, and how it is applied. for instance, the Church created the Dogma of the hypostatic union, and the Trinity. Like the Marian doctrines, these were not created, but handed down. I understand that you do not accept any of the evidnece that they existed, and that you are trying to apply human scientific methods to the revelation of God, which is a losing battle, God’s ways being so far above our ways.
Infallibility did not exist in the early Church- again no proof.
What we see in the NT is infallibility. the NT itself is entirely an infallible act. When God works through humans to produce inspired and inerrant results, these are infallible acts. When humans meet in a council, and emerge from it able to say “it seemed right to the HS and to us”, an infallible decision has been reached. I agree that the record of the NT does not lend itself to parsing through the scientifc method. We accept the contents of it by faith, because we know the Source, and He is reliable.

You seem to have a trust problem with the Source of the NT.
Where did GOD say make up new dogmas?
He instructed Peter to feed and care for the flock. He instructed the Apostles to teach all that He commanded. He authorized the Church to bind and to loose (legislate).
Or is that an oral tradition secretly passed down through the years until it was proclaimed?
There are no secrets in the Teaching of the Apostles (Sacred Tradition), but yes this teaching is handed down though, not extracted from the pages of the book 2000 years after the fact.
When the sheperd adds requirements of salvation not laid out in the Gospel - correct the authority is not there.
The fact that you believe this has occurred is the evidence that the gospel of salvation you received is deficient.

Jesus taught that we are to do all that He commanded. This is the sum of the faith that the CC holds infallibly by the power of the HS.
lol!! “the Gospel” is reduced to a very abbreviated version of how to get “saved”. So now we mere Christians do not now how to live a godly life?
It is my observation that most of my separated brethren do the best they can with what they have. Some have very little, comparatively.

It is the duty of the church to be teaching people how to live in this world, and how to be prepared to join Christ in the next. That is all about our salvation.
So as a Catholic GOD’s Word is insufficient in teaching people how to live in this world, and how to be prepared to join Christ in the next.
Yes. I think if you are honest with yourself, you will agree that the Bible alone has produced thousands of sects, many of them with contradictory doctrines. This is not how Jesus established His Church.

It is essential to read the Bible from the point of view of what Jesus taught the Apostles.
 
Code:
The 2 natures of Christ is in Scripture you don't need Mary being proclaimed mother of GOD to see the Scripture proof.
What is in Scripture is not the problem, but rather, how the reader understands it. The heretics the term Theotokos was chosen to combat read the same scripture you do, but understand it differently. The same think happens today, with the Mormons reading scripture and not understanding it according to the faith of those who wrote it.
Code:
 Why not just point to and teach the various verses in Scripture that point to Jesus' 2 natures?  Why does man feel the need to add to GOD's Word?
It is not an addition, Schaick. The Word of God was committed entirely to the Church. It did not cease to be the Word of God because some of it was written down.

The term Theotokos does just that - points to the verses that describe His two natures. 👍
I believe that Mary was born a sinner like all of us, yet can see through Scripture proof that Jesus does in fact does have 2 natures- am I a goat or sheep?
Only God can determine if you are a goat or a sheep. All I can tell you is that you are a rebellious subject of the Roman Pontiff. 😃
 
Hi guanophore

I still have not had my question answered. My question is being misunderstood.

I am Asking. HOW WOULD THIS AFFECT A PERSON BECOMEING A BISHOP??
I am sorry, Shaky. You question is based upon a false premise. Unless and until you understand your error, there is no answer that will help you.
 
So the catholic church has always taught Jesus is the Rock and Peter is the Rock ?
Yes. Jesus is the Rock, Peter was grafted into the Cornerstone, and was made into a Rock (that is why Jesus changed his name to Cephas), and Peter’s statement is also solid Rock. 👍
St. Paul never mentions Peter as authenticating Paul’s teachings .Paul says no man , not even Peter taught him but Christ. Iraneus also mentions Paul as an equal to Peter in authenticating the Gospel.
Paul received the paradosis from the Church, and direct revelation from God. Why would Paul not be equal to all the other Aposltes and bishops in authenticating the gospel?
Circular. My way or the highway , top down worldly style style of governance.
If you don’t like the way God set up His kingdom, then you will have to take it up with Him. The Kingdom of God is not a democracy. It is a theocracy.
I do not think Paul and Iraneus and Ignatius had the same dogma on Peter . Popery evolved at best.
The role and Petrine gifts are quite broad. It would not be surprising if differnt people had different perspectives on them. What is “popery”?
Show me a text from Ignatius that said Peter is universal bishop, or above all the other apostles .
I guess I don’t understand about the “above” part. I think that Jesus was very clear that they were not to “lord it over” others. Peter’s letters indicate he is a very humble man. The Bishop of Rome signs his encyclicals “servant of the servants of God”. He does this because he is the custodian of the Petrine gifts (to feed and care for the flock). Jesus has only One Flock, therefore, the one who is responsible for their care and feeding cannot ignore any part of the One Flock.
.This was the new Game ,the church hooked up with politics .Why else would the church give a hoot where the Empire had it’s capital
I think this contamination from political involvement was a set back for the Church both East and West, but much more damaging in the West. It is the reason that clergy are now forbidden to hold any political office.
.Was not the Empires’ move to Constantinople not liked by the pope ? Why ? Who cares.
When the Western Empire fell, there was no structure left to adminstrate the affairs of the people. The Emperor gave the authority to govern what was left to the Bishop of Rome, along with the title of Pontiff.
Patriarch may not be a God office
Not sure what this means. Patriarch is a Jewish custom that refers to the head and authority of a household/family.
,but that Rome had primacy in 4th century , I do not think so .
Irenaeus was writing about the primacy of Rome this in the 2nd cent.

“every Church should agree with this Church on account of its pre- eminent authority everywhere”

"3. The blessed apostles, then, having founded and built up the (Roman) Church, committed into the hands of Linus the office of the episcopate. Of this Linus, Paul makes mention in the Epistles to Timothy. To him succeeded Anacletus; and after him, in the third place from the apostles, Clement was allotted the bishopric. This man, as he had seen the blessed apostles, and had been conversant with them, might be said to have the preaching of the apostles still echoing [in his ears], and their traditions before his eyes…


  1. *]Irenaeus was from the city of Smyrna in the East (present day Turkey). Same city as Polycarp.(both bishops were disciples of St John) Irenaeus knew Polycarp.
    *]Ignatius of Antioch ~107 a.d. wrote 6 letters to 6 Churches before he died. Only to the Church of Rome did he say held the presidency.
    *]Irenaeus of Smyrna, was made bishop of Lyons, (present day France) .

    Antioch & Alexandria weren’t mentioned by Irenaeus. But if they were mentioned, they would have to be in agreement with Rome also. That’s the point.

    the quotes and points Irenaeus is making are clear. Obviously if one is NOT agreeing with Rome they are NOT preserving apostolic teaching. And they are the ones Irenaeus is writing AGAINST

    Antioch and Alexandria, etc etc, if they are faithful to the apostolic tradition, must agree with Rome because of Rome’s pre—eminent authority. THAT’S what Irenaeus is saying.

    Give Irenaeus a read.
 
Hello david ruiz; It appears our discussions are coming from different angles and at times we are not on the same page for example “the 50 bibles”. Although upon reading your posts I realized that you are arguing from a “Western (not Eastern) Orthodox” point of view. You are not arguing from an ex Catholic protestant view, which clarifies my misunderstandings of view points. Now that this is cleared up it is evident to me, that you have learned only a late protestant view of the Papacy. It is a known fact that the Eastern Rite Orthodox Church’s in full communion remain true to their Orthodoxy by adhering to the Early Orthodox Church Fathers teachings and understandings of Peter, Paul and their successors in the Popes. That said here is your proof;

Paul speaking; Galatians 1;11
9 Now I want you to know, brothers, that the gospel preached by me is not of human origin.
12
For I did not receive it from a human being, nor was I taught it, but it came through a revelation of Jesus Christ. 10
13
11 For you heard of my former way of life in Judaism, how I persecuted the church of God beyond measure and tried to destroy it,
14
and progressed in Judaism beyond many of my contemporaries among my race, since I was even more a zealot for my ancestral traditions.
15
But when (God), who from my mother’s womb had set me apart and called me through his grace, was pleased
16
to reveal his Son to me, so that I might proclaim him to the Gentiles, I did not immediately consult flesh and blood, 12
17
nor did I go up to Jerusalem to those who were apostles before me; rather, I went into Arabia 13 and then returned to Damascus.
18
14 15 **Then after three years I went up to Jerusalem to confer with Cephas ]and remained with him for fifteen days. 19
But **I did not see any other of the apostles, only James the brother of the Lord. 16
20
(As to what I am writing to you, behold, before God, **I am not lying.) **

Here is the Catholic Saint Ignatius a bishop** from Antioch**; All paranthesis mine

Letter to the Romans, chapt. 4…"I do not command you, as Peter and Paul did they were apostles… (This statement from St. Ignatius proves that his bishopric did not have full jurisdiction over the whole Apostolic Catholic Church and that it was from Peter and Paul from Rome which did the commanding to all the Churches outside of Rome, as St. Iraneus will prove later)

Here is the Catholic Saint Irenaeus; against heresies, bk 3, chapt.1…We have learned from none others the plan of our salvation, than from those through whom the Gospel has come down to us, which they did at one time proclaim in public (oral Tradition), and at a later period, by the will of God, handed down to us in the scriptures to be the ground and pillar of our faith…Matthew also issued a written Gospel among the Hebrews in their own dialect, while Peter and Paul were preaching at Rome, laying down the FOUNDATION OF THE CHURCH"

bk 3, chapt.3… “The blessed apostles, then having founded and built up the Church, COMMITTED INTO THE HANDS OF LINUS ( first Pope successor to Peter) the office of the episcopate. OF THIS LINUS, PAUL MAKES MENTION IN THE EPISTLES TO TIMOTHY. To him succeeded Anacletus (second Pope successor to Peter), and after him, in the THIRD PLACE FROM THE APOSTLES, CLEMENT WAS ALLOTTED THE BISHOPRIC. This man, as he had seen the blessed apostles and had been conversant with them might be said to have the preaching of the apostles still echoing in his ears, and their Traditions before his eyes… In the time of Clement… the Church of Rome dispatched A MOST POWERFUL LETTER TO THE CORINTHIANS exhorting them to peace…declaring the Tradition which it had lately received from the apostles”.

continues ST. Iraneaus…We do this, I say by indicating that Tradition derived from the apostles, of the very great, the very ancient, and universally known Church FOUNDED AND ORGANIZED AT ROME by the two most glorious apostles, Peter and Paul…which comes down to our time by means of the succession of the bishops. FOR IT IS A MATTER OF NECESSISTY THAT EVERY CHURCH SHOULD AGREE WITH THIS CHURCH ON ACCOUNT OF ITS PRE-EMINENT AUTHORITY"… against heresies bk 3 chapt.3
I do not think Paul and Iraneus and Ignatius had the same dogma on Peter . Popery evolved at best. Show me a text from Ignatius that said Peter is universal bishop, or above all the other apostles . I am not sure Iraneus even says this. Do not follow your logic and what proof ?

cont;
 
I don’t get it? Jesus speaks loud and clear from Matthew 16 our King of Kings and Lord of Lords building his church upon Peter. Yet you look to men to dictate to you something other? Amazing logic coming from a Protestant Sola Scripturalist? And then when it is proven to you men professed such Catholic Faith of Mt.16 Jesus building his church upon Peter; You look for other dates, or other Saints who never had it questioned, so they never had a reason to write about it.

Maybe you should stick to why “you” protest the Catholic church Jesus built upon Peter before taking on other faiths foreign to your own protestantism to protest the Catholic church.
I believe it was a full church council ,and the Popes delegates were their ,and indeed had some of its business “passed” .It is pertinent that the council said the Pope did not have primacy in the east. Perhaps ,but they were only doing what Rome was doing .I think they never had Rome’s interpretation of Matt 16.Never.Which makes me think it was not a universal teaching ever .That Constantinople was power hungry may be true ,but if Matt 16 is not your way ,then it is hypocritical for Rome to cry foul.I might say Constantinople learned from Rome .This was the new Game ,the church hooked up with politics .Why else would the church give a hoot where the Empire had it’s capital .Was not the Empires’ move to Constantinople not liked by the pope ? Why ? Who cares.Patriarch may not be a God office , but there ended up being five -which sounds more democratic and logistical .Remember , to the East , there was no such thing as head pope either.
The pagan Emperors ruled over the Eastern Churches during final decisions in the East, when it came to matters of the whole of Christendom, the pagan Emperors sought the approval of every Pope, while the Patriarchs of Constantinople remained secondary to the ultimate outcome of Church matters over the whole of Christendom. Who said anything about invitations? Keep in mind there has only been one single time in all of 2000 years of history that a Pope attended a council. That was Peter recorded in Acts, who heard from heaven to allow the Gentiles into the Church and spoke infallibly when all fell silent to this first Popes words from heaven’s revelation.
Not sure you are right.He did not consult the bishop of Rome before calling the council of Nicea, except perhaps to give him an invitation as all the other bishops of the Empire.That an emperor would consult any leader of any institution is to be expected ,but that Rome had primacy in 4th century , I do not think so .
 
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