Cup not Chalice

  • Thread starter Thread starter Antoinette_W
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
In neither the Hebrew or Greek Lexicon is the word translated into english as chalice, it is translated as cup. When it was translated from Greek into Latin, it is calicem, which translates into English is cup or chalice.
Why did we not go with cup which agrees more with the Hebrew and Greek translations?
I thought we wanted to be true to His Word.
I know that for centuries the mass was Latin, and we didn’t read the Bible, but it’s in our language now, and we are using a chalice instead of a cup -as it is translated in the bible.
Can the Mass and the Bible not be on the same page? It is disappointing to me.
 
Also adding, Jesus spoke a Galilean aramaic, and the gospel writers most likely wrote them in Greek.
 
In neither the Hebrew or Greek Lexicon is the word translated into english as chalice, it is translated as cup. When it was translated from Greek into Latin, it is calicem, which translates into English is cup or chalice.
Why did we not go with cup which agrees more with the Hebrew and Greek translations?
I thought we wanted to be true to His Word.
I know that for centuries the mass was Latin, and we didn’t read the Bible, but it’s in our language now, and we are using a chalice instead of a cup -as it is translated in the bible.
Can the Mass and the Bible not be on the same page? It is disappointing to me.
I don’t understand why it matters much either way.
 
In neither the Hebrew or Greek Lexicon is the word translated into english as chalice, it is translated as cup.
Blame the folks who put your lexicons together for not including chalice since it is a perfectly acceptable synonym of cup. Don’t blame the Catholic Church for using a bigger vocabulary than is found in your lexicons.
 
In neither the Hebrew or Greek Lexicon is the word translated into english as chalice, it is translated as cup. When it was translated from Greek into Latin, it is calicem, which translates into English is cup or chalice.
Why did we not go with cup which agrees more with the Hebrew and Greek translations?
I thought we wanted to be true to His Word.
I know that for centuries the mass was Latin, and we didn’t read the Bible, but it’s in our language now, and we are using a chalice instead of a cup -as it is translated in the bible.
Can the Mass and the Bible not be on the same page? It is disappointing to me.
What you call “the Bible” is simply a translation. As I already pointed out, another English translation, the Douay-Rheims uses chalice no problem.

Cup, chalice, synonyms, so therefore, there is no violence to God’s word.

This is a non-issue and is the wrong hill to die on.

Big deal.
 
We have all witnessed the change in the verbiage of the Mass throughout the years. Cup or Calice, does it really matter what the vessel is called? It still remains the Holy Sacrafice of the Mass in which we receive the Body, Blood, Soul & Divinity of Our Lord Jesus Christ. That’s all that should matter. Don’t get caught up on minutia.
 
OP, you’re splitting hairs. The words are synonyms, and I struggle to find out what point there is in making a distinction between them anyway.

Are you trying to make some sort of deeper point about the Church having flawed liturgical wording? Bring it out; what are you getting at?
 
The original documents weren’t written in English. Additionally, cup and chalice are synonyms with chalice implying something a little fancier than an ordinary drinking cup.
 
To DSHIX
The original question seems to be lost in translation.
In scripture “cup” has meaning:

Psa 11:6 RSV
On the wicked he will rain coals of fire and brimstone; a scorching wind shall be the portion of their cup.
Psa 16:5 RSV
The LORD is my chosen portion and my cup; thou holdest my lot.
Psa 23:5 RSV
Thou preparest a table before me in the presence of my enemies; thou anointest my head with oil, my cup overflows.
Psa 75:8 RSV
For in the hand of the LORD there is a cup, with foaming wine, well mixed; and he will pour a draught from it, and all the wicked of the earth shall drain it down to the dregs.
Psa 116:13 RSV
I will lift up the cup of salvation and call on the name of the LORD,

There are more “cup” verses in Psalms and Prophets that carry deep that meaning.

All I’m saying is,“If we want Catholics to find deep meaning in the Mass and in reading His Word, it would be easier to find the connections with similar words connecting similar deep or hidden meanings.” So -same words in the Mass as in the scriptures.
 
To DSHIX
The original question seems to be lost in translation.
In scripture “cup” has meaning:

Psa 11:6 RSV
On the wicked he will rain coals of fire and brimstone; a scorching wind shall be the portion of their cup.
Psa 16:5 RSV
The LORD is my chosen portion and my cup; thou holdest my lot.
Psa 23:5 RSV
Thou preparest a table before me in the presence of my enemies; thou anointest my head with oil, my cup overflows.
Psa 75:8 RSV
For in the hand of the LORD there is a cup, with foaming wine, well mixed; and he will pour a draught from it, and all the wicked of the earth shall drain it down to the dregs.
Psa 116:13 RSV
I will lift up the cup of salvation and call on the name of the LORD,

There are more “cup” verses in Psalms and Prophets that carry deep that meaning.

All I’m saying is,“If we want Catholics to find deep meaning in the Mass and in reading His Word, it would be easier to find the connections with similar words connecting similar deep or hidden meanings.” So -same words in the Mass as in the scriptures.
I didn’t miss anything in translation. If you were to replace every occurrence of “cup” in those scripture verses with “chalice”, it looks to me that they would sound just as “profound” as before.

And I am willing to guess that there are translations of the Bible that do translate it with the word “chalice”.

Another point: who says that the Mass loses profundity if it doesn’t follow the same wording conventions as the scriptures? The English you read in your bible is just the translation that that translator chose, and it could be phrased differently with a different translator. Right?
 
And I am willing to guess that there are translations of the Bible that do translate it with the word “chalice”.
Douay-Rheims
Revised Standard Version - Second Catholic Edition (in the institution narratives, “cup” everywhere else).
Another point: who says that the Mass loses profundity if it doesn’t follow the same wording conventions as the scriptures? The English you read in your bible is just the translation that that translator chose, and it could be phrased differently with a different translator. Right?
It doesn’t.

This is just hairsplitting, seeing a problem where none exists.

It’s a non-issue.
 
You said
“Douay-Rheims Revised Standard Version - Second Catholic Edition (in the institution narratives, “cup” everywhere else).”

What are the institution narratives -:hmmm: and why the switch if they mean the same?

I found the Douay-Rheims online and I have the New AmericanBible Revised Edition (study Bible 3rd Edition) I also have the English-Jewish "Jerusalem Bible " and the NASB

I spent a year in Israel volunteering with a Messianic ministry working mostly in Hebrew and English. I have spent 22 years away from the Catholic Church, and this journey led me back but with a deep appreciation of how Temple worship was a shadow of the Mass and both pointing to Yeshua and His sacrifice. After being gone so long, I really saw a lot of changes, and I really think for the better, but that “chalice-cup” thing just doesn’t sit right with me yet. But Hey, I am always open to searching and learning truth. He led me back, and I know He will continue to give me good council.
 
You said
“Douay-Rheims Revised Standard Version - Second Catholic Edition (in the institution narratives, “cup” everywhere else).”

What are the institution narratives -:hmmm: and why the switch if they mean the same?

I found the Douay-Rheims online and I have the New AmericanBible Revised Edition (study Bible 3rd Edition) I also have the English-Jewish "Jerusalem Bible " and the NASB

I spent a year in Israel volunteering with a Messianic ministry working mostly in Hebrew and English. I have spent 22 years away from the Catholic Church, and this journey led me back but with a deep appreciation of how Temple worship was a shadow of the Mass and both pointing to Yeshua and His sacrifice. After being gone so long, I really saw a lot of changes, and I really think for the better, but that “chalice-cup” thing just doesn’t sit right with me yet. But Hey, I am always open to searching and learning truth. He led me back, and I know He will continue to give me good council.
  1. please keep in mind that this is a TRANSLATION issue, not one of theology
  2. if you google cup vs. chalice and if you look up chalice in the dictionary, you see that chalice refers to a drinking vessel (usually for drinking vessel for wine, which is not made of glass, which has a stem). A cup has no stem and may or may not have a handle.
The below link shows a large number of Jewish Seder “Blessing Cups,” which the overwhelming majority of them shown fit the English understanding of a chalice.

images.search.yahoo.com/yhs/search;_ylt=A0LEVjRccqJYMUwAMm4PxQt.;_ylu=X3oDMTByMjB0aG5zBGNvbG8DYmYxBHBvcwMxBHZ0aWQDBHNlYwNzYw–?p=Jewish+Sader+Cups&fr=yhs-Lkry-baboom&hspart=Lkry&hsimp=yhs-baboom

However, its also important to understand that in some languages, there is NOT a distinction between cup and chalice. But English is a very complex language due to many influences and the adoption of words from other languages.
  1. here is a totally unrelated example of how totally different words can be used in different languages. In English we say “Pope Francis” in Spanish and Latin it would be “Papa Francisco.” The point I’m trying to make is the titles Pope vs Papa. In Italian, Spanish, plus many other languages, “papa” is what a child would call his/her father. Like “dad” or “daddy” in English. But the word “Pope” is not an English word, it comes from the Scottish translation of “Papa.” In English, we do not call our biological fathers “pope.” The title Pope in English is almost exclusively used for the Catholic Pope and the Coptic Pope (even if most English speaking people don’t know about the Coptic Pope).
So translations are NOT perfect. What did Jesus use back then? A wine glass with a stem or one without a stem? Most likely, it had a stem. It most likely was a poor drinking vessel, and perhaps not what many people would consider a chalice based on today’s standards of what a modern chalice looks like. But if it had a stem, it would be a chalice.

God Bless
 
Hey, you do see that the historical context suggests a cup not chalice (stemmed ware) as the most likely vessel used by Jesus! Finally someone gets it!
So it is not only a word translation issue, but also a historical and cultural translation issue!
 
Hey, you do see that the historical context suggests a cup not chalice (stemmed ware) as the most likely vessel used by Jesus! Finally someone gets it!
So it is not only a word translation issue, but also a historical and cultural translation issue!
What are you talking about? The link provided showed that many, if not most drinking vessels used at Seders have a stem!
 
What are you talking about? The link provided showed that many, if not most drinking vessels used at Seders have a stem!
Right. Exactly.

Another thread to say:

What.
Ever.

to.

There are other hills to die on; this is not one of them. Seriously, trying to find a theological argument in a cup.

Good luck, if you don’t follow too closely after me.
 
Hey, you do see that the historical context suggests a cup not chalice (stemmed ware) as the most likely vessel used by Jesus! Finally someone gets it!
So it is not only a word translation issue, but also a historical and cultural translation issue!
Antoinette,

It’s an curious thing to wonder about, but it’s NOT an issue.

It’s a non-issue. It’s not worthy wasting a whole lot of energy on it…
 
To porthos11 and drforjc

Whooooa there!!! … I finally found a non judgemental,understanding, and in depth answer to my question. No not from either of you! Get off your high horses!

HERE’S WHAT I FOUND
Precious chalice or cup?
In the post “Telling the truth - a new corrected translation", Lawrence the Roman writes concerning the new corrected ICEl translation of accipiens et hunc praeclarum calicem in sanctas acvenerabiles manus suas:
Jesus Christ did not take “a precious chalice".
“He the cup” (I Cor 11: 25)
“He took a cup” (Matt 26:27)
“He cup a cup” (Mark 14:23
“He did the same with the cup after supper…” (Luke: 22:20)
“The inspired books teach the truth. Since therefore all that the inspired authors or sacred writers affirm should be regarded as affirmed by the Holy Spirit, we must acknowledge that the books of Scripture firmly, faithfully, and without error teach that truth which God, for the sake of our salvation, wished to see confined to the Sacred Scriptures.” (Catechism of the Catholic Church No. 107)
Just as the Sacred Scripture is the “soul of theology” it should also be the “soul of the Liturgy”. Let’s not alter Holy Writ for pious claptrap!
The Sacred Scriptures are indeed the soul of the Liturgy in the sense that the texts of the Liturgy include quotations from the scriptures and, when they are not quotations, often allude to them. It could also be said that the Liturgy is at the heart of Scripture.
The canon of scripture (the determination of which books are to be recognized as inspired scripture) was formed particularly with reference to the Liturgy - the books to be included in the Canon were those that could be read as sacred scripture in the Liturgy.
Furthermore, the Church was celebrating the Liturgy of the New Covenant (testament) some years before the books of the New Testament were written down. The scriptures of the New Testament came from the life of the Church, at the heart of which was the
celebration of the Holy Eucharist.
The quotation from the Catechism is not to the point in this case. St Paul says that
All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice (2 Timothy 3.16)
Protestants sometimes use this verse to argue that we must only use scripture for teaching. This is a logical fallacy: “All A is B” does not imply “Only A is B”. Similarly, the quotation from Catechism of the Catholic Church does not imply that only the words of scripture should be used in the Liturgy or that embellishments may not be added within the liturgy out of faith by the Church which composed those scriptures in the first place.
In the Douai-Rheims translation of 1 Cor 11.25, the word used to translate the Greek “poterion” or Latin “calicem” is chalice. In the King James version, the word is translated “cup”. This was a small indication of the protestant tendency to present the Eucharist as
simply a meal and to downplay the real presence of Christ in the
Eucharist. It is noteworthy that although the older version of the RevisedStandard Version (Catholic Edition) of the bible uses “cup” in these texts, the new version, revised by Ignatius Press in accordance with Liturgiam Authenticam has “chalice”. Here is the relevant text from the document which has guided ICEL in preparing the
new corrected translation of the texts of the Mass.
c) One should maintain the vocabulary that has gradually developed in a given vernacular language to distinguish the individual liturgical ministers, vessels, furnishings, and vesture from similar persons or things pertaining to everyday life and usage; words that lack such a sacral character are not to be used instead; (Liturgiam Authenticam 50.c)
It should also be noted that the Last Supper was not an informal meal. There are debates over whether it followed the liturgy of the passover meal or of another form of communion sacrifice but it was undoubtedly a liturgical meal in which all the elements - including
the bread, the wine, and the vessels, were set apart for sacred use and were not simply everyday kitchen items.
The vessel used by Our Lord, as well as being properly called a chalice was also precious, not necessarily on account of the material with which it was made, but because it was used in that liturgical action in which Our Lord instituted the most Holy Eucharist. I think we can agree that his hands were holy and worth of veneration.
As I have tried to emphasise here, the new corrected translation of the Mass is necessary because of errors and defects in the old ICEL translation. It is not a text newly composed from scratch. Therefore to suggest that the text should say simply “he took the cup” is to
propose a change to the Roman Canon which has been in use in the Church since the time of St Ambrose. To say that the Roman Canon is “pious” is fine, if piety is understood correctly, but “claptrap” rather tends to contradict the defined doctrine of the Council of Trent: And whereas it beseemeth, that holy things be administered in a holy
manner, and of all holy things this sacrifice is the most holy; to the end that it might be worthily and reverently offered and received, the Catholic Church instituted, many years ago, the sacred Canon, so pure from every error, that nothing is contained therein which does not in the highest degree savour of a certain holiness and piety, and
raise up unto God the minds of those that offer. For it is composed, out of the very words of the Lord, the traditions of the apostles, and the pious institutions also of holy pontiffs. (Council of Trent Session 22 “Doctrine on the Sacrifice of the Mass” chapter 4)

the-hermeneutic-of-continuity.blogspot.ca/2010/09/precious-chalice-or-cup.html
 
Jesus definitely did not use either the word cup or the word chalice since He was not speaking english.

since no one knows the form of the vessel Jesus used when He established the Blessed Sacrament, why make a big deal of the english word used to describe the form of the vessel. maybe the form was that of a bowl as some one earlier wrote, or perhaps it was the form of a jug. nobody knows.

would every one feel better if we substituted the word “vessel” for both those who like cup and those who like chalice when we say the words of consecration in english since that is the most generic and least descriptive word in english for something that holds a liquid?

now i ask myself, why am i even writing this.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top