?? I see no doubt. I see her comment as reminding him it is inappropriate for them to speak. As there is a hard heart relationship between the Jews from southern Israel and Samaria Moses does not ask for water. Both the people in the desert and the Samaritan woman are passing on salvation for a want of actual water The Priests of the Aaron verses the Priests of the Temple. Really it is submission to the Temple authority; the Samaritan’s said no I cannot speak for the other womae but I understand she is not following the Law, and yet Jesus does not pursue obedience to the Temple, nor a hard heart toward her ?
That is not how I read the Church teachings, also why would he use the term “ungodly”?
usccb.org/nab/bible/romans/intro.htm
Personally I think there is more
First of all, I never said that Moses was the one asking for water. I would suggest, with all due respect, that you carefully re-read what I have posted. We do agree that the Hebrews were making the issue of water more important than trusting in the Lord who saved them through the waters of the Red Sea. They had already seen the power of the Lord. The Samaritan woman, on the other hand, did not have a clue as to who this particular Jewish Man was until He engaged her in conversation. This conversation brought forth her gradual conversion. Conversion is the ultimate message for the Elect during this particular time, but, not just to the Elect, but, to all of us. Even the psalm which you were picking apart has, as its ultimate message, conversion. “If today you hear his voice, harden not your hearts” is a call to conversion, a very strong one, at that. The psalm admonishes us not to be like Ancient Israel when they rebelled against the Lord at Meribah and Massah in the desert.
The Samaritan woman was following the Law as interpreted by her particular branch of Jacob’s descendants. Jesus told her that there would come a time when neither the mountain nor the Temple would be the center of worship; rather, worship would be in Spirit and Truth. Here He alludes to the new covenant that He would establish, which constitutes the Holy Sacrifice of the Mass.
I have already indicated that “ungodly”, in this sense, would mean that we have engaged in conduct that puts us squarely against God.
I think that you might need to re-read the explanation behind St. Paul’s letter to the Romans. The fact that he spends significant chunks of texts on Israel and the Church would mean that the audience is primarily Jewish-Christian, or, at least, has a good knowledge of the faith of Ancient Israel.
Nothing of what I said contradicts what the Church teaches. With all due respect, the comment that you wrote (indicated in bold) leads me to believe that I am going against what the Church teaches. Nothing could be further from the truth. If I misunderstood the thrust of your remark, then I apologize, but, this has come up once before in another thread.
I am currently taking a course on the letters of St. Paul as taught by my parochial vicar, who is rather orthodox in his teachings. While we have not yet covered Romans, we are taking apart the Epistles, reading them as the Church reads them and not as modern scripture scholars interpret them. That is not to say that all of them are wrong, but, some of them are rather questionable in their commentary.
Yes, while there is more to these readings, the Church does have this particular set for use in the scrutinies for a reason. The preface that I quoted from succinctly states the kernel of the message.