And in my mind so is only having sex when you can’t get pregnant. [Contraception is wrong because it seeks to remove the procreative nature from an act which is taking place.]
Except that only having sex when one isn’t likely to become pregnant doesn’t involve “
removing the procreative nature from an act which is taking place” because the couple is completing the act in the natural manner, such that they otherwise would become pregnant were this act to take palce in the fertile time. They have not
contracepted, rather they are utilizing their free right to have sex in the infertile period.
I do agree [that couples are free to purposefully have sex during an infertile period].
Do you also agree that the Church teaches that contrception is wrong because of the purposeful attempt to remove the procreative nature from an act that is taking place?
And do you see the difference between contracepting an act that is taking place, opposed to completing an act naturally, even if that act is completed in an infertile period?
The issue with this is that you are only thinking about half of what NFP is.
No, I have continuously noted specifically both aspects of using NFP to avoid conception. As I have stated above, it involves 1) abstaining from sex in the fertile period, and 2) enjoying the Marital embrace in the infertile period.
You have already agreed that couples are free to have sex in the infertile period. Do you also agree that couples are not required to have sex in the fertile period if they choose not to?
By only looking at only the abstaining part, it isn’t NFP…it is abstinence.
This is what I mean by logical fallacy. You are misrepresenting my position. Please stop doing that.
You have to look at what all of NFP is not just the abstaining part.
Which is what I have been doing, as well as explaining that NFP is not an act, rather “information that a couples then uses to decide whether or not to engage in an act”.
…That is impossible to procreate in…
That’s another example of what I mean by logicla fallacy. You are “begging the question” by claiming it impossible to procreate as such, and then ignoring the fact that the “act” in question is engaged in, and completed, in the natural manner. In this way, you are re-defining the argument. This is a “strawman fallacy”. I was trying to avoid specifically calling out the fallacious reasoning on your part, but since you thought I was simply being condescending, there are some examples for you to show my sincerety. That is also why I noted that a Christian is above such behavior…out of sincerety…and because it is a plain fact.
It’s also possible to procreate while on ABC.
Yes, it is. But the possibility of procreation is not what makes an act “ordered toward procreation”. Being ordered toward procreation involves a couple completing an act in the natural manner. It is the
purposeful attempt to remove the procreative nature from an act that is taking place which is sinful. That is what separates NFP from contraception.
oh please. I did answer them. You keep hiding behind the abstaining part of NFP and not the sex part. BTW, I’m not sure if you know what logical fallacy means
This is yet another example of logical fallacy…misrepresenting my position along with poisoning the well. Yes, I know what it means.

And please stop doing it.
logicalfallacies.info/
fallacyfiles.org/introtof.html
yourlogicalfallacyis.com/
I have never said this [that couples are required to engage in intercourse every time they are fertile].
I know. That’s why I asked it in question format to make sure I understand what you are saying. I just asked it again above, like this: “Do you also agree that couples are not required to have sex in the fertile period if they choose not to?”.