David and Bathsheba

  • Thread starter Thread starter Journeyman
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
J

Journeyman

Guest
When David and Bathsheba had their adulterous affair, David’s son from the affair ends up dying. It is easy to see this as a severe punishment to the child. Why did God have the child die?
 
All people are going to die. Remember, David and Bathsheba are not the “only” creators of this child–God is. What we perceive of as “punishment”–an early death of an innocent child–is only our human 'intellect". Existence, of course, is better than nonexistence, but all must die. That innocent child did not have the opportunity to perhaps do something very good–but equally had no opportunity to do very bad. Almost surely that child went (on Jesus’s resurrection) straight to God’s arms–and to the arms of David and Bathsheba as well.

The bottom line is, GOD made us, and we know that He knows our birth, our life, and our death, and that his plan is ordained for us. Whatever might seem to be arbitrary (plagues, illness), or evil (murder), somehow He can turn this to His good, and the good of all people.
 
40.png
Journeyman:
When David and Bathsheba had their adulterous affair, David’s son from the affair ends up dying. It is easy to see this as a severe punishment to the child. Why did God have the child die?
It’s not a punishment to the child. It’s a punishment to both David and Bathsheba for their sin.

Many children die, even those of good, God-fearing parents. In such cases, we never jump to conclude that someone’s been punished. It’s a consequence of fallen creation that sometimes, man suffers the effects of original sin, which includes death and loss. Misfortune is not always necessarily a punishment due to personal sin, although it could be. In any case, God can always bring good out of it.

In the case of David, his child was not guilty of anything. His death was that of an innocent child who was ordained to die at that time, just like any other man. It was not a punishment to the child, for God took him early to himself. But his loss was a punishment to David, and it worked. Shortly after that, David wrote Psalm 51, expressing his sorrow for sin and his contrition.
 
My infant son died suddenly and inexplicably in 2004.
I have never once viewed the death of a young child as a bad thing for the child.
It is those of us left behind who have to keep on living with the shock, grief, trauma, etc.
The child goes to enjoy immediately the beatitude of glory, without ever having known the tragedy of personal sin, or of a sinful world. :angel1: What a blessing! (I’m jealous…)
 
40.png
Journeyman:
When David and Bathsheba had their adulterous affair, David’s son from the affair ends up dying. It is easy to see this as a severe punishment to the child. Why did God have the child die?
God did not cause the Child to die. David, through his sin, did. Our sins have consequences that can effect everyone around us.
 
Also, God forgave David, but still punished him. Does this have anything to do with Purgatory, maybe? Even after we are forgiven, we still have some temporal punishments to deal with? Hmmmmmm.

Take Care!

Notworthy
 
They had a great talk on CA Live last week, related to this - one of the Priests explained it. I had never heard it explained so well. God can do nothing bad (knew that), and He has two types of wills - an Ordained will, and a Permissive will. Ordained will is where God makes something happen directly - Noah’s flood. Permissive will is where He lets the nature He created run its course, like if you fall down the stairs because the lights are not on. God does not directly control everything, otherwise it would be like He has us on puppet strings, and that’s surely not the picture we get from Scripture.

Some people may die due to Ordained will, probably many die due to permissive will - some percentage of babies will die from the percentages of natural causes. That’s just life on this satan-infested earth.
 
40.png
Journeyman:
When David and Bathsheba had their adulterous affair, David’s son from the affair ends up dying. It is easy to see this as a severe punishment to the child. Why did God have the child die?
Along with the fine answers you have received I wanted to point out that this first child of David and Bathsheba’s would have inherited the throne from his father as Solomon later did. It was not fitting that a child conceived in adultery should inherit the throne and be one of the ancestors of the Messiah. God did not want David to have an heir through such means to be the promised “fruit of David’s loins” who was to sit on his (David’s) throne forever. Obviously Solomon didn’t fulfill that prophecy, but Jesus did, who was David’s descendant through Solomon.
 
40.png
Della:
Along with the fine answers you have received I wanted to point out that this first child of David and Bathsheba’s would have inherited the throne from his father as Solomon later did. It was not fitting that a child conceived in adultery should inherit the throne and be one of the ancestors of the Messiah. God did not want David to have an heir through such means to be the promised “fruit of David’s loins” who was to sit on his (David’s) throne forever. Obviously Solomon didn’t fulfill that prophecy, but Jesus did, who was David’s descendant through Solomon.
If you take a closer look at the lineage of Jesus Christ, you’ll find several individuals of “questionable morals”. I don’t think this would have prevented David’s throne to end up with Jesus.

Notworthy
 
40.png
NotWorthy:
If you take a closer look at the lineage of Jesus Christ, you’ll find several individuals of “questionable morals”. I don’t think this would have prevented David’s throne to end up with Jesus.

Notworthy
As to that, David himself would be disqualified, if that were the criteria I was citing. I did not say the child was of questionable morals, and indeed couldn’t be since he could not have committed any actual sin. Rather, I said that as an ancestor of the Messiah and a possible King of Israel, his being conceived in adultery would have disqualified him.

On the practical level, it was a mercy that God took the child when he did, because if he had grown up others could and would have used him to contend for the throne. It’s why David’s first wife could have no children after David rejected her because any child of hers might be used in the same way.
 
40.png
Della:
As to that, David himself would be disqualified, if that were the criteria I was citing. I did not say the child was of questionable morals, and indeed couldn’t be since he could not have committed any actual sin. Rather, I said that as an ancestor of the Messiah and a possible King of Israel, his being conceived in adultery would have disqualified him.
Umm, perhaps, but then there’s no telling for sure. The child was not automatically heir-apparent; Solomon was explicitly designated King before David died. But by birth, Adonijah son of Haggith had a valid claim to the throne (Absalom and Amnon having died years before). If such an impracticality existed, David could have simply designated another son to succeed him.

Besides, other ancestors of the Messiah also had questionable conceptions: Peres and Zerah were conceived by Judah impregnating his daughter-in-law who was posing at the time as a prostitute.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top