J
Journeyman
Guest
When David and Bathsheba had their adulterous affair, David’s son from the affair ends up dying. It is easy to see this as a severe punishment to the child. Why did God have the child die?
It’s not a punishment to the child. It’s a punishment to both David and Bathsheba for their sin.When David and Bathsheba had their adulterous affair, David’s son from the affair ends up dying. It is easy to see this as a severe punishment to the child. Why did God have the child die?
God did not cause the Child to die. David, through his sin, did. Our sins have consequences that can effect everyone around us.When David and Bathsheba had their adulterous affair, David’s son from the affair ends up dying. It is easy to see this as a severe punishment to the child. Why did God have the child die?
Along with the fine answers you have received I wanted to point out that this first child of David and Bathsheba’s would have inherited the throne from his father as Solomon later did. It was not fitting that a child conceived in adultery should inherit the throne and be one of the ancestors of the Messiah. God did not want David to have an heir through such means to be the promised “fruit of David’s loins” who was to sit on his (David’s) throne forever. Obviously Solomon didn’t fulfill that prophecy, but Jesus did, who was David’s descendant through Solomon.When David and Bathsheba had their adulterous affair, David’s son from the affair ends up dying. It is easy to see this as a severe punishment to the child. Why did God have the child die?
If you take a closer look at the lineage of Jesus Christ, you’ll find several individuals of “questionable morals”. I don’t think this would have prevented David’s throne to end up with Jesus.Along with the fine answers you have received I wanted to point out that this first child of David and Bathsheba’s would have inherited the throne from his father as Solomon later did. It was not fitting that a child conceived in adultery should inherit the throne and be one of the ancestors of the Messiah. God did not want David to have an heir through such means to be the promised “fruit of David’s loins” who was to sit on his (David’s) throne forever. Obviously Solomon didn’t fulfill that prophecy, but Jesus did, who was David’s descendant through Solomon.
As to that, David himself would be disqualified, if that were the criteria I was citing. I did not say the child was of questionable morals, and indeed couldn’t be since he could not have committed any actual sin. Rather, I said that as an ancestor of the Messiah and a possible King of Israel, his being conceived in adultery would have disqualified him.If you take a closer look at the lineage of Jesus Christ, you’ll find several individuals of “questionable morals”. I don’t think this would have prevented David’s throne to end up with Jesus.
Notworthy
Umm, perhaps, but then there’s no telling for sure. The child was not automatically heir-apparent; Solomon was explicitly designated King before David died. But by birth, Adonijah son of Haggith had a valid claim to the throne (Absalom and Amnon having died years before). If such an impracticality existed, David could have simply designated another son to succeed him.As to that, David himself would be disqualified, if that were the criteria I was citing. I did not say the child was of questionable morals, and indeed couldn’t be since he could not have committed any actual sin. Rather, I said that as an ancestor of the Messiah and a possible King of Israel, his being conceived in adultery would have disqualified him.