1) The action to be performed must be morally good in itself or at least morally indifferent or neutral.
- The good effect must not come about as a result of the evil effect, but must come directly from the action itself.*
- The good must be willed, and the evil merely allowed or tolerated.*
- The good effect must be at least equivalent in importance to the evil effect.*
Everything in italics (above and below) was copied from Catholicism & Ethics, A Medical/Moral Handbook. * When we perform various actions they are followed by various effects, some of which we desire (wish, intend, want, will) and others of which we do not desire but merely allow (permit, tolerate).*
What is the intent behind an act of execution if not the death of the condemned? It is not something that is merely tolerated; in fact the act is not considered complete until the victim is dead. The act fails its objective if the person lives, but if the death is intended - yet the act is still permitted - it cannot be considered an evil effect.Sin is an act of the will and, since this is so, we must distinguish between what is willed and what is tolerated or merely permitted before judging the morality of an action.
Another distinction that must be kept in mind when considering the principle of the twofold or double effect is that there is a difference between performing a good act which has both good and evil effects, and performing an evil act in order that good may result.
In the case of an execution, what is the good ***act ***that justifies the death of the prisoner? If protection is the good effect and death is the evil effect, what act justifies the death? You cannot condemn the direct, intended death of a human being as being improper and still do it, even to achieve a good result.
Ender
Ender please stick to the point.
My challenge was:
Ender:
It is easy to satisfy these criteria for killing in self defense.
Capital punishment does not satisfy these criteria
BH:
You didn’t actually demonstrate or explain either of the last two assertions.
In fact both Aquinas and JPII demonstrated that legitimate State Executions can be done without directly intending with one’s heart the death of the criminal. And the only way this can be done is by using exactly the same argument behind both private self-defence and
therapeutic surgery (which would otherwise be the evil of mutilation). Namely, defence of life.
CCC 2263 "The legitimate defense of persons and societies is not an exception to the prohibition against the murder of the innocent that constitutes intentional killing. “The act of self-defense can have a double effect: the preservation of one’s own life; and the killing of the aggressor. . . . The one is intended, the other is not.”
Clearly the CCC states such indirect killing is possible in a deliberate State Execution as well as a private self -defence.
Scholastic moral philosophy sees a clear distinction between the “chosen foreseen likely lethal consequence” of the primary intention of defending another… and “directly intending” the aggressor’s death."
Do you accept the possibility of this distinction also for the State or not?
If not why not?
Please don’t try and deconstruct CCC 2263 because it won’t be credible.
Make a theological argument…or at least accept what I am saying could be right instead of ruling it out as intrinsically impossible simply because it is uncomfortable for your own position.
I agree with you totally that it is impossible for the State to Execute without directly intending the death of a criminal IF the primary motive is retrib justice.
That is exactly why the CCC (and the Pope and Aquinas) states that the secondary objective of the Common Good (ie defence of the State) MUST be present.
This alone can make State Executions indirect killings.
CCC2267 "the traditional teaching of the Church does not exclude recourse to the death penalty, **if this is the only possible way of effectively defending **human lives against the unjust aggressor. "
This is looks stated as a principle to me.
Why would you think it is a prudential judgement (apart from the fact that Dulles told you…or because you see this as the only way to resolve what you fear is a “inconsistency” with tradition)?
The only prudential part is determining if there actually is no other way of defending the State from future aggression caused by the continued existence of the criminal.
The Pope personally judges that there are indeed other ways in modern society to so defend. Yeah, that’s debatable.
But lets be clear. This prudential judgement is only made by him because he accepts there is a
principle apart from retrib punishment that he must defer to.
I believe the inability of Dulles et alia to face this much more likely possibility (ie the CCC is definitely asserting a principle as is E.Vitae ) is intellectually timid and dishonest.
It is a track that needs to be explored.
If there was only a principle of retrib punishment to prudentially reflect upon and apply - whence the need to consider future aggression

.
There isn’t any need.
The only prudential need would to be reasonably sure you had caught the right person.