Dear Swiss Guy:
For clarity, I am changing the order a bit.
strawman
You think it a straw man that I say the teachings have changed.
You’ll have to prove that “strawman” accusation, because I have proven my case and you have not made yours.
Your strawman is an empty allegation.
You prove it yourself that you are fighting a straw man from point 3 by saying, “You find it a genuine argument that the Church has changed (rearranged, restated?) Her teachings because society doesn’t comprehend the Church’s foundation of “redressing the disorder” or the medicinal aspects of capital punishment and, because of man’s weakness the Church sought a way to limit executions.”
On the contrary, I reject any argument about the Church changing her teachings.
I have great respect for PJPII’s intelligence. Your saying I don’t, is not just a strawman, but worse. I stated he was just plain wrong, as a matter of fact. His was a statement made out of ignorance, much like the imaginary “traditional teachings” that don’t exist.
Right, you were saying Pope John Paul II didn’t understand (he was just plain wrong) traditional Church teaching, that he was ignorant. I find that kind of incredible, but that’s just me.
Both 1 and 2 are clear and obvious changes to prior teachings. Prove they are not.
According to the classical tradition itself, punishment should not be inflicted when the infliction does more harm than good. Prof. Charles errs in stating that this prudential principle is “unsupported either by scriptural confirmation or tradition.” Thomas Aquinas asserts that the execution of the wicked is forbidden when it cannot be done without danger to the good (SCG 146.9; cf. ST II-II, q. 43, art. 7, ad 1) - Avery Cardinal Dulles
So here we have the greatest Doctor of the Church (Aquinas, not Dulles

) saying that capital punishment is warranted only if it won’t hurt the common good, while getting his support from the greatest Latin father of the Early Church, St. Augustine. While retributive justice is the #1 purpose of CP, to the extent that it is exercised depends on the effect it will have on the common good. This is not about the teaching, that the state has a right to lawfully kill those who have committed murder. This is about the application of CP in society, where its application is forbidden if it presents a danger to the common good/human lives. Hence, in application “the traditional teaching of the Church does not exclude recourse to the death penalty, if this is the only possible way of effectively defending human lives against the unjust aggressor.” The Church is concerned about the moral health of society, where application of capital punishment can either help or hurt society’s moral health. The Catechism is keeping away from the traditional, or at least since the 17th/18th century, sometime after the Spanish Scholastic period, (Neo)Scholastic way of presenting the Faith and presenting it in more of a Patristic style with Scholastic influence, probably in an overreaction against the stale NeoScholasticism of the first half of the 1900’s. IOW, the Catechism is more concerned about the application of the death penalty in 2267 rather than the abstract teaching about punishment which was covered in 2266.
A morally healthy society should demand retributive justice; it is for the preservation of it’s moral health or the moral health of human lives. A morally corrupt society might see capital punishment differently, and consequently it’s application (even if abstractly it may be justified) might not be justified for the (moral) defense of human lives/common good.
This is not about change in teaching, but it’s application in modern society. So I don’t know if I proved that this wasn’t a change in teaching; I tried showing it is about CP’s application in society and how it isn’t about the teaching. Maybe we’re on a different page???
- You find it a genuine argument that the Church has changed (rearranged, restated?) Her teachings because society doesn’t comprehend the Church’s foundation of “redressing the disorder” or the medicinal aspects of capital punishment and, because of man’s weakness the Church sought a way to limit executions.
Allegedly, this might stem from the arguement that it harms the “common good” that societies excercise in capital punishment is only based within hatred, revenge or the sort, as opposed to a correction of the disorder and other medicinal aspects.
That would acknowledge a change in teachings, based upon the problem of man’s error, in this context.
How does saying that because society has trouble comprehending what is morally correct and that capital punishment could harm the common good as a result acknowledge a change in teaching?

It acknowledges capital punishment might not be applied in the same way for prudential reasons but not a change in teaching. Perhaps you could prove that it shows a change in teaching? Actually don’t do that, I’m actually dropping this thread this time.
God bless you all.
