E
exoflare
Guest
(cont…)
Early church fathers did not accept the Apocrypha as Scripture either – including Jerome, who wrote the Latin translation of the Bible held as THE RCC standard of Biblical scholarship for centuries. Check also such pillars of theology as Athanasius, Cyril and Origen – none saw the Apocrypha as part of the canon.
“What sin have I committed if I follow the judgment of the churches? But he who brings charges against me for relating [in my preface to the book of Daniel] the objections that the Hebrews are wont to raise against the story of Susannah [Dan. 13], the Song of the Three Children [Dan. 3:29-68, RSV-CE], and the story of Bel and the Dragon [Dan. 14], which are not found in the Hebrew volume, proves that he is just a foolish sycophant. I was not relating my own personal views, but rather the remarks that they are wont to make against us. If I did not reply to their views in my preface, in the interest of brevity, lest it seem that I was composing not a preface, but a book, I believe I added promptly the remark, for I said, ‘This is not the time to discuss such matters’” (Against Rufinius 11:33 [A.D. 401]).
“. . . if anyone receives not as sacred and canonical the books with all their parts as they have been used in the Catholic Church, let him be anathema.”
Amen. And so ends the story of where we got the Bible.
Early church fathers did not accept the Apocrypha as Scripture either – including Jerome, who wrote the Latin translation of the Bible held as THE RCC standard of Biblical scholarship for centuries. Check also such pillars of theology as Athanasius, Cyril and Origen – none saw the Apocrypha as part of the canon.
Code:
I like how you act as if these were the only church fathers that ever existed because you think their view supports your own in this one instance. And where do any of these people state this exactly? In any case, none of these people would have any authority by themselves to decide the canon of scripture on their own so it really wouldn't matter whether or not they did.
But here's an interesting quote from Jerome:
Code:
Even Cardinal Cajetan, the Pope's designated condemner of Luther at Augsburg (1518), published his "Commentary on All the Authentic Historical Books of the Old Testament" and it DID NOT INCLUDE the Apocrypha!
Was he the Pope... writing a doctrine to the whole church? If not, how does this have any bearing on the real doctrine?
The impact of the Reformation caused a Counter Reformation and at the Council of Trent, the RCC specifically absorbed (they would say "elevated") the Apocrypha (and condemned anyone who refused to do so). This was done 1,000 years after the Apocrypha were written -- something never done in the entire history of the church anywhere by anyone.
The part you conveniently leave out is that NONE of the books in the Bible were infallibly declared a part of scripture before this time! Scripture was discussed at Hippo and Carthage, and the Deuterocanonicals were declared to be canon here. However, the canon was not defined infallibly and made a dogma here since Hippo and Carthage were not ecumenical councils. It was finally decided to settle the matter for good shortly after, during the Council of Trent, in order to put a lid on heretics like Luther. This isn't uncommon when a huge controversy erupts over church teaching that has not yet been infallibly defined.
I believe the Council of Trent quote went something like this:
Amen. And so ends the story of where we got the Bible.