Debating the filioque

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Fr. Francis Dvornik, a Catholic historian, argues in his exhausted study of the question of St. Photius and the Council of Constantinople of 879 that Pope John VIII accepted the decisions of the Council.
Fr. Morris,

I have read Fr. Dvornik’s paper on this, as well as Warren Carroll’s and Phillip Schaff’s account. Carroll and Schaff don’t agree that Pope John VIII ultimately accepted the decrees of the Council of 879. My primary point though is that Orthodoxy generally doesn’t accept the Fourth Council of Constantinople (879) as ecumenical, and the Catholic Church certainly doesn’t; so I don’t think it has much bearing on whether the filioque is a permissible addition to the creed or not.
 
Fr. Morris,

I have read Fr. Dvornik’s paper on this, as well as Warren Carroll’s and Phillip Schaff’s account. Carroll and Schaff don’t agree that Pope John VIII ultimately accepted the decrees of the Council of 879. My primary point though is that Orthodoxy generally doesn’t accept the Fourth Council of Constantinople (879) as ecumenical, and the Catholic Church certainly doesn’t; so I don’t think it has much bearing on whether the filioque is a permissible addition to the creed or not.
Eastern Orthodoxy does accept the Council of 879 as ecumenical. Some Orthodox historians and theologians call it the 8th Ecumenical Council. Thus to us, it does have a bearing on whether the addition of the filioque is permissible. Besides, what about the other 7 Ecumenical Councils that established and ratified the correct text of the Creed?

Archpriest John W. Morris
 
But it is considered to have been an ecumenical council (in fact, if I recall, it even called itself as much), although it is not enumerated with the Seven or liturgically celebrated as they are. As Fr. George Dragas points out, there are quite a few issues which have affected its enumeration (or sometimes lack thereof) throughout history which nevertheless have not affected the Orthodox acceptance of this council which called itself ecumenical, and was received by the five patriarchates.
The Council of Constantinople of 869 also called itself ecumenical (holy, great and universal synod), yet it is rejected as such by the Orthodox. I’ve seen writings by Fr. Dragas and T.R. Valentine that suggest there may be eight or even nine ecumenical councils. This seems to be a minority view though, with most claiming the council of 879 to be a pan-Orthodox council - in spite of the encyclical of the eastern patriarchs.
 
The Council of Constantinople of 869 also called itself ecumenical (holy, great and universal synod), yet it is rejected as such by the Orthodox. I’ve seen writings by Fr. Dragas and T.R. Valentine that suggest there may be eight or even nine ecumenical councils. This seems to be a minority view though, with most claiming the council of 879 to be a pan-Orthodox council - in spite of the encyclical of the eastern patriarchs.
It is true that in honor of the 7 Ecumenical Councils, we usually restrict the title Ecumenical Council to the original 7. However, for Orthodox a Pan-Orthodox Council has the same authority as an Ecumenical Council after its decisions are accepted by the autocephalous Churches of Orthodoxy. The Council of 879 rejected the Council of 869 much the same way that the 4th Ecumenical Council rejected the Robber Council of Ephesus of 449. The Council of 879 had over 800 Bishops including a delegation representing Rome. Rome respected the decision of the Council of 879 and did not add the filioque to the Creed until 1014.
 
Eastern Orthodoxy does accept the Council of 879 as ecumenical. Some Orthodox historians and theologians call it the 8th Ecumenical Council. Thus to us, it does have a bearing on whether the addition of the filioque is permissible. Besides, what about the other 7 Ecumenical Councils that established and ratified the correct text of the Creed?

Archpriest John W. Morris
Not according to Orthodox Wiki, and not according to every Orthodox catechism I have seen. The only time anything more than seven ecumenical councils comes up is when there is a debate about the filioque.

What Nicaea I and Constantinople I demonstrate is that the creed is a symbol of faith that can be added to by another Ecumenical Council. As stated in the Council of Ephesus:

“1. It is not permitted to produce or write or compose any other creed except the one which was defined by the holy fathers who were gathered together in the holy Spirit at Nicaea.” ["]Ephesus]("http://www.papalencyclicals.net/Councils/ecum03.htm#Definition of the faith at Nicaea [6th session 22 July 431).

Obviously Constantinople I changed the creed, which was then ratified at Chalcedon. The point being that an Ecumenical Council has the authority to do this. And that is exactly what Lyons II and Florence did in adding the filioque. I understand that you do not recognize either of those councils as ecumenical, but that is how the RCC views it.
 
Not according to Orthodox Wiki, and not according to every Orthodox catechism I have seen. The only time anything more than seven ecumenical councils comes up is when there is a debate about the filioque.

What Nicaea I and Constantinople I demonstrate is that the creed is a symbol of faith that can be added to by another Ecumenical Council. As stated in the Council of Ephesus:

“1. It is not permitted to produce or write or compose any other creed except the one which was defined by the holy fathers who were gathered together in the holy Spirit at Nicaea.” ["]Ephesus]("http://www.papalencyclicals.net/Councils/ecum03.htm#Definition of the faith at Nicaea [6th session 22 July 431).

Obviously Constantinople I changed the creed, which was then ratified at Chalcedon. The point being that an Ecumenical Council has the authority to do this. And that is exactly what Lyons II and Florence did in adding the filioque. I understand that you do not recognize either of those councils as ecumenical, but that is how the RCC views it.
The Council of Lyons II was held in 1245 after Rome had already changed the Creed in 1014. Therefore even if Lyons II were an Ecumenical Council, Rome acted without the authority of an Ecumenical Council by changing the Creed. The Creed accepted at Ephesus did not contain the filioque neither did the Creed ratified at Chalcedon. One reason the 1st Council of Constantinople was held was to condemn the heresy of Macedonianism that denied the divinity of the Holy Spirit. Therefore, they added a section to the Creed affirming the divinity of the Holy Spirit as proceeding from the Father. Chalcedon confirmed the decision of Constantinople I to add to the Creed. Rome also accepted the decision of Chalcedon to recognize the additions to the Creed and recited the Creed without the filioque until 1014.
Lyons II and Florence did not resolve the schism, because both were held at a time when the Emperor of the Eastern Roman Empire was pressuring the Orthodox to agree to the Roman demands, because he wanted Western help in fighting the Turks. Thus there was not enough time at either council to do the detailed discussions necessary to resolve the issues that divide Orthodoxy from Roman Catholicism.

Archpriest John W. Morris
 
Fr. Morris,

As I said earlier, there is dispute among scholars as to whether or not Theodore and Nestorius ever truly believed the heresy which they became known for. For example, in your statement above, you said that Theodore described the natures as a “moral union”, whereas, this article states:

“Theodore has rejected out of hand that Christ’s natures are united in either a substantial or an accidental moral union.65 [Swete, 2.293–94.] He opted for what he considered to be a special, unique graced kind of union—a union that has bedeviled theologians and philosophers who cannot comprehend a union that is neither substantial nor accidental.” (Theodore of Mopsuestia Revisited, pg. 470).

I personally hope that one day these condemned Fathers can be rehabilitated amongst the greater body of the Apostolic Churches, but if not, then oh well. As an Assyrian-Chaldean Catholic, my faith in the Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God, is steadfast and does not depend on the orthodoxy or heterodoxy of this Father or that Father, but on the Apostolic Faith which we received from St. Thomas the Apostle and his companions.

God bless,

Rony
The Roman Catholic Church has also anathematized Theodore of Mopsuestia several times. It accepts as the 8th Ecumenical Council the Council of Constantinople of 869 which anathematized Theodore of Mopsuestia by name. Orthodox do not recognize the Council of Constantinople of 869 as an Ecumenical Council, because it was condemned by the Council of Constantinople of 879, which we do recognize and was accepted by Pope John VIII.

Archpriest John W. Morris
 
I just read the canons of the Council of Constantinople of 869.
It is true that they condemn St. Photius. However, the canons also affirm the historic independence of the other 4 Patriarchates and give no special privileges to Rome. They certainly do not recognize the authority of Rome to interfere in the internal affairs of the other 4 Patriarchs. Therefore the council considered the 8th Ecumenical Council by Rome does not affirm Rome’s claims to universal jurisdiction. Rome did recognize the reinstatement of St. Photius. Therefore, it is difficult to argue that it did not recognize the Council of Constantinople of 879. Remember even before the in 810 Pope Leo III rejected the addition of the filioque to the Creed and proclaimed that the Ecumenical Councils forbade any additions to the Creed as approved by the Ecumenical Councils.

Archpriest John W. Morris
 
What do you mean by “habit” when describing sanctifying grace? The concept of grace as an uncreated energy of God is essential to Orthodox theology because our understanding of salvation is not legalistic, but mystical. Those who are saved are saved through a real communion with God through His grace which a real experience of God. This communion with God changes us to be like God. That is why we call salvation deification.
By “habit” I mean an accidental quality. A (probably bad) example: when food is cooked, it is heated. Heat in this sense can be considered like an actual grace. By heating, the food is made hot. When the food is hot, it has heat as an accidental quality and is said to be hot. Heat in this sense is like sanctifying grace. Being hot cleanses the food of germs and makes it pleasing to the eater (I am trying my best here). Of course there are limitations to this example so don’t press it too hard, but I hope this helps illustrate the distinction.

I’m not sure what in particular you want me to elaborate on the use of habit, so I will turn you over to the Catholic Encyclopedia, which talks in some detail about in what sense sanctifying grace is a habit.
  1. As we have seen that sanctifying grace designates a grace producing a permanent condition, it follows that it must not be confounded with a particular actual grace nor with a series of actual graces, as some ante-Tridentine theologians seem to have held. This view is confirmed by the fact that the grace imparted to children in baptism does not differ essentially from the sanctifying grace imparted to adults, an opinion which was not considered as altogether certain under Pope Innocent III (1201), was regarded as having a high degree of probability by Pope Clement V (1311), and was defined as certain by the Council of Trent (Sess. V, can. iii-v). Baptized infants cannot be justified by the use of actual grace, but only by a grace which effects or produces a certain condition in the recipient. Is this grace of condition or state, as Peter Lombard (Sent., I, dist. xvii, 18) held, identical with the Holy Spirit, whom we may call the permanent, uncreated grace (gratia increata)? It is quite impossible. For the person of the Holy Ghost cannot be poured out into our hearts (Romans 5:5), nor does it cleave to the soul as inherent justice (Trent, sess. VI, can. xi), nor can it be increased by good works (loc. cit., can. xxiv), and all this is apart from the fact that the justifying grace in Holy Writ is expressly termed a “gift [or grace] of the Holy Ghost” (Acts 2:38; 10:45), and as the abiding seed of God (1 John 3:9). From this it follows that the grace must be as distinct from the Holy Ghost as the gift from the giver and the seed from the sower; consequently the Holy Spirit is our holiness, not by the holiness by which He Himself is holy, but by that holiness by which He makes us holy. He is not, therefore, the causa formalis, but merely the causa efficiens, of our holiness.
Moreover, sanctifying grace as an active reality, and not a merely external relation, must be philosophically either substance or accident. Now, it is certainty not a substance which exists by itself, or apart from the soul, therefore it is a physical accident inhering in the soul, so that the soul becomes the subject in which grace inheres; but such an accident is in metaphysics called quality (qualitas, poiotes) therefore sanctifying grace may be philosophically termed a “permanent, supernatural quality of the soul”, or, as the Roman Catechism (P. II, cap. ii, de bap., n. 50) says “divina qualitas in anima inhaerens”.
 
(Continued)
  1. Sanctifying grace cannot be termed a habit (habitus) with the same precision as it is called a quality. Metaphysicians enumerate four kinds of quality:

    • habit and disposition;
    • power and want of power;
    • passion and passible quality, for example, to blush, pale with wrath;
    • form and figure (cf. Aristotle, Categ. VI).
Manifestly sanctifying grace must be placed in the first of these four classes, namely habit or disposition; but as dispositions are fleeting things, and habit has a permanency theologians agree that sanctifying grace is undoubtedly a habit, hence the name: Habitual Grace (gratia habitualis). Habitus is subdivided into habitus entitativus and habitus operativus. A habitus entitativus is a quality or condition added to a substance by which condition or quality the substance is found permanently good or bad, for instance: sickness or health, beauty, deformity, etc. Habitus operativus is a disposition to produce certain operations or acts, for instance, moderation or extravagance; this habitus is called either virtue or vice just as the soul is inclined thereby to a moral good or to a moral evil. Now, since sanctifying grace does not of itself impart any such readiness, celerity, or facility in action, we must consider it primarily as a habitus entitativus, not as a habitus operativus. Therefore, since the popular concept of habitus, which usually designates a readiness, does not accurately express the idea of sanctifying grace, another term is employed, i.e. a quality after the manner of a habit (qualitas per modum habitus), and this term is applied with Bellarmine (De grat. et lib. arbit., I, iii). Grace, however, preserves an inner relation to a supernatural activity, because it does not impart to the soul the act but rather the disposition to perform supernatural and meritorious acts therefore grace is remotely and mediately a disposition to act (habitus remote operativus). On account of this and other metaphysical subtleties the Council of Trent has refrained from applying the term habitus to sanctifying grace.

In the order of nature a distinction is made between natural and acquired habits (habitus innatus, and habitus acquisitus), to distinguish between natural instincts, such, for instance, as are common to the brute creation, and acquired habits such as we develop by practice, for instance skill in playing a musical instrument etc. But grace is supernatural, and cannot, therefore, be classed either as a natural or an acquired habit; it can only be received, accordingly, by infusion from above, therefore it is a supernatural infused habit (habitus infusus).
newadvent.org/cathen/06701a.htm

It might be worth your time to read the article in its entirety.
It is true that the Greek Fathers used terms from Greek philosophy. However, they did not believe it necessary or good to try to reconcile Christian theology with Aristotle. Instead Orthodox theology emphasizes the mystery of God. St. Gregory of Nyssa used the example of Moses who went into the darkness of the cloud and smoke of Mt. Sinai to converse with God. We call this apophatic theology, which means the theology of not knowing or doing theology on the basis of what God is not. It exists in the Western tradition, but tends to be somewhat marginalized as mystical whereas it is central to Eastern theology and considered superior to cataphatic theology, which is more central in the West.
Historians tell us that scholasticism was born in an effort to reconcile Christian theology with Aristotle. To me scholasticism tries to understand too much through human reason and logic. For example the distinction between substance and accidents, terms borrowed from Aristotle, used to describe the change that takes place in the bread and wine during the Eucharist. We simply teach that the bread and wine are changed into the sacred Body and Blood of Christ and make no effort to use the categories of Aristotle or anyone else to try to define the nature of the change. Instead, we treat it as a mystery beyond human comprehension.
St. Thomas agrees with the principle of apophatic theology and certainly does not disparage it. He states toward the beginning of his Summa, “We cannot know what God is, but only what He is not. So to study Him, we study what He has not.”

The concept of deification or divinization is present in the Summa Theologica (you can see some examples in the quotations I posted), and other Western fathers such as Augustine, who is quoted by St. Thomas. “Factus est Deus homo, ut homo fieret Deus” (Sermo XIII de Tempore), that is, “God was made man so that man might be made God.”

I am puzzled that there are Eastern Orthodox who reject the definition of transubstantiation as too philosophical. Eastern Orthodox do not object to the idea of substance. If the Eucharist is Christ, then the Eucharist is Christ in substance, which precludes it being bread and wine in substance. However, the Eucharist still has the sensible properties of bread and wine and, as far as we can see, behaves as bread and wine. These accidental properties remain present even though the substance is Christ. The notion of accident is not rejected by the Eastern Orthodox. St. John Damascene, for example, uses it in his Exposition of the Orthodox Faith, as a quick search will show. Transubstantiation seems like a very good clear and uncontroversial way of stating the orthodox doctrine of the Eucharist. It is hardly an explanation of how God changes the bread and wine (as if that could be understood), but an explanation of what happens, which is exactly what you say, that the bread and wine are really changed into Christ’s body and blood despite the sensible appearance that the bread and wine remain.
 
Not according to Orthodox Wiki
I hope that Orthodox Wiki is not a reliable source for Orthodox beliefs. In order to maintain the polemical comdemnation of the Western use of unleavened bread, the authors of the article I was once reading insisted that the Last Supper took place on Nisan 14 so, therefore, Christ and the Apostles were of course using leavened bread and that the Synoptic Gospels are in error that it took place Nisan 15. I’m not making this up.

"The majority of scholars of the Last Supper do not believe that it was a Passover meal, a position consistent with the account given by the Gospel of Saint John. A minority believe that it was a seder or Passover meal, a position consistent with the Synoptic gospels. However, as Enrico Mazza has argued, the minority view “remains a theological interpretation. The historical fact is that the Last Supper was not a Passover celebration and, consequently, that its liturgy was not that of the Jewish Passover” (The Celebration of the Eucharist: The Origin of the Rite and the Development of Its Interpretation [Collegeville, MN: Liturgical Press, 1999] pp. 25-26).

The Orthodox Church uses leavened bread for, according to the Gospel of Saint John, Last Supper and Passion, took place during the evening, night and day time of Passover Day, therefore leavened bread was eaten in Last Supper. According to the synoptic Gospels, last Supper, Lord’s trial and crucifixion took place during next day, the first Day of Unleavened Bread feast, but according to Lev 23:7, any work on that Day was forbidden. Clearly, the synoptic Gospels are in error on the day of Last Supper and Passion."
orthodoxwiki.org/Eucharist#Background
 
The Greek Fathers used Greek words for theological terms. Physis once was used similarly to hypostasis but later was used similarly to ousia. This is not science but rather using human words to describe the mysteries of God.

St Thomas Aquinas used Aristotle’s teachings as a science. One substance cannot coexist in the same location as another substance because they can’t “scientifically” exist together.

We say, “It looks like bread and wine but it is now the Body and Blood of Christ.”
St Thomas says, “The accidents of bread and wine exist but the substance of bread and wine cease to exist because Christ’s substance has replaced them.”
Would you consider the bare-bones doctrine of transubstantiation “science” rather than “using human words to describe the mysteries of God?” I’m not sure I fully understand the distinction. How is the Catholic doctrine of transubstantiation really different from the Orthodox doctrine of the Trinity in this respect. To me, it seems like the only difference is that the Orthodox have done “science” in one place and shy away from doing it in another.
 
Would you consider the bare-bones doctrine of transubstantiation “science” rather than “using human words to describe the mysteries of God?” I’m not sure I fully understand the distinction. How is the Catholic doctrine of transubstantiation really different from the Orthodox doctrine of the Trinity in this respect. To me, it seems like the only difference is that the Orthodox have done “science” in one place and shy away from doing it in another.
I did not call it a science but rather said the St Thomas used Aristotle’s words as though they are scientific truth. If you read his Summa, you will see him quote Aristotle to prove his theology. Which Greek Father quotes Plato to prove his theology?
 
Okay, I see what you are saying. The Greek Fathers don’t say things like, “On the contrary, the Philosopher says…” Maybe there is no Greek work comparable to something like the Summa. I really don’t have the knowledge to say. However, let’s qualify what you said by adding that although Thomas quotes Aristotle as an authority, it is not as though he holds Aristotle beyond reproof, and is not afraid to diverge from Aristotle where Aristotle’s writings less closely reflect the truth of things.
 
However, let’s qualify what you said by adding that although Thomas quotes Aristotle as an authority, it is not as though he holds Aristotle beyond reproof, and is not afraid to diverge from Aristotle where Aristotle’s writings less closely reflect the truth of things.
I agree. 🙂
 
Okay, I see what you are saying. The Greek Fathers don’t say things like, “On the contrary, the Philosopher says…” Maybe there is no Greek work comparable to something like the Summa. I really don’t have the knowledge to say. However, let’s qualify what you said by adding that although Thomas quotes Aristotle as an authority, it is not as though he holds Aristotle beyond reproof, and is not afraid to diverge from Aristotle where Aristotle’s writings less closely reflect the truth of things.
Would not the Exact Exposition of the Orthodox Faith by St. John of Damascus be considered a Greek equivalent to the Summa? I just did a search of the text using my computer and found references in the footnotes to ideas that came from Plato, but no direct reference to Plato in the actual text.
It is necessary to put the Summa in its historical context. Aristotle had been lost in the West until manuscripts of his works were found during the reconquistia of Spain from the Muslim Moors. The discovery of Aristotle was revolutionary to Western thought. Scholasticism was an effort to reconcile the newly found knowledge with Christian theology. The East had not lost Aristotle, so his thought was not considered that revolutionary. However, the East considered Aristotle of great value for science and philosophy, but too dependent on human reason for theology. In fact the Eastern Church condemned John Italus in a council held in 1082 for arguing that human reason was a valid method for when doing theology. The firm conviction of the East is that the human mind is too limited for human reason to be a way to comprehend the mysteries of God. Therefore we avoid rationalism in our theology. It is better to simply accept God’s revelation at face value rather than to try to understand and define it using human reason.

Archpriest John W. Morris
 
The Roman Catholic Church has also anathematized Theodore of Mopsuestia several times. It accepts as the 8th Ecumenical Council the Council of Constantinople of 869 which anathematized Theodore of Mopsuestia by name. Orthodox do not recognize the Council of Constantinople of 869 as an Ecumenical Council, because it was condemned by the Council of Constantinople of 879, which we do recognize and was accepted by Pope John VIII.
Fr. Morris,

I am aware that the Latin Church has anathematized Theodore. Theodore died in peace and communion with the Church, but was then condemned posthumously. I am in favor of having him rehabilitated as a person, because I am not convinced that he taught the Nestorian heresy of two Sons and two Persons.

God bless,

Rony
 
The Church of the East still rejects the title Theotokos for Mary and accepts the Christology of Theodore of Mopsuestia which was a forerunner of Nestoriansim and was condemned by the 5th Ecumenical Council. The Church of the East also considers Nestorius a Saint. Therefore even if the teaching of the Church of the East is not strictly Nestorianism, there are important issues that need to be resolved by much better theologians than I am. I am aware of the common declaration on Christology between Rome and the Church of the East. The Church of the East has entered into a relationship of Communion with the Chalcedonian Catholic Church which to us means indirect Communion with Rome. However, it is also evident that the ultimate cause of the schism was that for its own self-preservation, under the Persians, the Church of the East had to assert its independence of the Byzantine Empire.
As Eastern Orthodox, I still believe that common acceptance of the Faith of the ancient undivided Church as expressed by the consensus of the Fathers and the dogmatic decisions of the 7 Ecumenical Councils is a necessary requirement for the restoration of unity among Christians.

Archpriest John W. Morris
And uses Christotokos - Bearer of the Anointed of God. A term for the Blessed Mother that was used even in Byzantium as one of the many titles for Mary.
 
Teaching that the Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son as one principle results in a subordination of the Holy Spirit, because it means that the Father and the Son share in a common property (causality) in which the Spirit does not also share, in effect the communion between the Father and the Son is a greater communion than the communion between all three, because more is shared between the Father and the Son than what is shared between all three. Having the Father as the sole cause (i.e., the Monarchy of the Father) does not result in a similar subordination, because causality in this model remains a characteristic unique to the Father (that is, an hypostatic characteristic of the Father). It is not causality which subordinates (for even some fathers, like St. Basil the Great do recognize that the Father is said to be greater than the Son with respect to causality without implying in this statement any subordinationism), but rather it is the sharing of causality with one and not the other which subordinates.

I do not see how if the Holy Spirit proceeds from both the Father and the Son it results in a subordination of the Holy Spirit, because the Holy Spirit as this line of reasoning goes, does not share in some common property of the Father and the Son.
With this line of reasoning we could say the same thing about the Son, i.e., that because the Son is from the Father and does not possess that property of the Father that He is from no one, then this results in a subordination of the Son.
However, we do not subordinate the Son to the Father on account of His origin from the Father. For the Son is true God from true God, light from light, begotten not made from all eternity, equal to the Father. In the same way, we do not subordinate the Holy Spirit to the Father and the Son because we believe He proceeds from both, for He too is God of the same substance as the Father and Son.
We believe the persons are not distinguished according to their Godhead for there is but one Godhead, nature, or substance of the Father. They are distinguished only by the relation of origin. The Father is from no one, the Son is from the Father only, the Holy Spirit is from both. Thus the order of the Trinity is preserved as Jesus laid out: baptize them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit.
The phrase, if I recall, that St. Augustine uses is that the Holy Spirit proceeds principally from the Father. That being said, we disagree with Thomas Aquinas’ exegesis of this phrase, because we do not believe that the Spirit is said to proceed from the Father principally because spiration is a power which is proper to the Father, but rather because spiration is a power unique to the Father. For us, the Spirit is said to proceed from the Father principally in the sense of the verb εκπορεύω, while the Spirit is said to proceed Father and Son in an equivocal sense, in the sense of the Greek verb πρόειμι
 
Well yeah! What’d you think we are, Anglicans or something??

😉 😃
I believe I’ve heard somewhere that the Lambeth Conference in the 1980s recommended that the filioque be phased out of Anglican recitation of the Creed. There seems to be a tacit acknowledgement amongst those Anglicans who do still care about doctrine that the filioque, if recited, should be understood in an Orthodox manner, with respect to the monarchy of the Father who alone is autotheos.
 
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