Defending the 7 Deuterocanonical Books

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About 100ad the Jewish leaders decided to close their canon out of fear of Christian writings making their way in. They chose only the books that were originally written in Hebrew and rejected what they called the Greek books. Thus we have the Septuagint or “Greek” OT and the Hebrew OT.
It is interesting to note that some of the so called Greek books were found with the Dead Sea scrolls - originally written in Hebrew after all. It is also interesting to note that modern scholorship has proven that all of the New Testament writers, with the possible exception of Matthew, used and quoted from the Septuagint. The most obvious example of this fact is the letter to the Hebrews which quotes extensively, word for word, from the Septuagint.
 
2 Machabees 12:46 It is therefore a holy and wholesome thought to pray for the dead, that they may be loosed from sins.

The whole concept of praying for the dead.
It is unBiblical to “pray for the dead.” Machabees is not proven to be scripture for the simple reason that it contradicts other scripture on this very point.
 
It is unBiblical to “pray for the dead.” Machabees is not proven to be scripture for the simple reason that it contradicts other scripture on this very point.
Many passages in the Bible seem to contradict one another-but that doesn’t make any of them less true.

I personally am not in a position to comment because a)I have yet to read Maccabees b)I’m a very new convert to Catholicism

However, if you have more to add on the topic, I would really like to hear. So far this thread has presented very compelling arguments why the 7 books ARE sacred scripture.

When I was looking into converting, this was one of the topics that really concerned me. But I found that information was hard to come by. There were plenty of compelling arguments from Catholics that soundly refuted Protestant arguments. I, however, like to get information from various sources…and I really couldn’t find any thoughtful, respectful discussions on this topic from the Protestant point of view. All of the articles I came across came from websites that were very “anti-Catholic”…in that, I mean, they were very disrespectful, to downright hateful.
 
I love this website (The Catholic Treasure Chest). It has a lot of material refuting Protestantism:

thecatholictreasurechest.com/deuter.htm

Also, he mentions the 7 books in this article:

thecatholictreasurechest.com/luther.htm
Actually; one does not need any such dubious, one-sided historical arguments and intellectual cheats to decide the truth on this one.

If the apocrypha is indeed inspired scipture, then it would NOT contradict the 66 books of the Bible. There is nowhere that the Bible would agree with Maccabees or anything else in praying for the dead. If Catholics would come back to their Protestant roots, then it would be the Bible only, and none of this mixed up the Bible Plus…

Can anyone tell us where the idea of praying for the dead would be found in the Protestant Bible?
 
Actually; one does not need any such dubious, one-sided historical arguments and intellectual cheats to decide the truth on this one.

If the apocrypha is indeed inspired scipture, then it would NOT contradict the 66 books of the Bible. There is nowhere that the Bible would agree with Maccabees or anything else in praying for the dead. If Catholics would come back to their Protestant roots, then it would be the Bible only, and none of this mixed up the Bible Plus…

Can anyone tell us where the idea of praying for the dead would be found in the Protestant Bible?
**ANSWER:

At least 2 places in the Protestant Bible come to mind where prayers for the dead are mentioned. One in the shortened Protestant Old Testament and one in the New Testament.

In 2 SM 3:35 David prays and fasts for Abner after Abner’s death.

In 2 TM 1:16-18 Paul prays for Onesiphorus after his death. He also prays for the needs of his survivng family and specifically for mercy upon the judgment of his soul.**

Glad to help.

Yours in Christ,

Veritashunter
 
Actually; one does not need any such dubious, one-sided historical arguments and intellectual cheats to decide the truth on this one.

If the apocrypha is indeed inspired scipture, then it would NOT contradict the 66 books of the Bible. There is nowhere that the Bible would agree with Maccabees or anything else in praying for the dead. If Catholics would come back to their Protestant roots, then it would be the Bible only, and none of this mixed up the Bible Plus…

Can anyone tell us where the idea of praying for the dead would be found in the Protestant Bible?
:rotfl: :rotfl: Thank you so much. I was starting out today on such a serious note. Now you have re-awakened my spirit of accomplishment, and for that I thank you.

God bless you…and may you learn to love Him with your whole heart, soul, and mind.

.
 
Actually; one does not need any such dubious, one-sided historical arguments and intellectual cheats to decide the truth on this one.

If the apocrypha is indeed inspired scipture, then it would NOT contradict the 66 books of the Bible. There is nowhere that the Bible would agree with Maccabees or anything else in praying for the dead. If Catholics would come back to their Protestant roots, then it would be the Bible only, and none of this mixed up the Bible Plus…

Can anyone tell us where the idea of praying for the dead would be found in the Protestant Bible?
P101, you are putting trhe cart before the horse. There are no Protestant roots to “come back” to. It was the Protestants who abandoned their roots and discarded elements that had been handed down to them from their fathers that the Catholics retain. Among these was the belief in a cleansing process after death that frees one from those attachments to earthly things that in his life kept him from a perfect abandonment to the will of God. This is not some Catholic novelty; it is a Jewish belief that, like the resurrection of the body, is not clearly defined in the Jewish scriptures and can only be inferred.
If one can suffer on earth for one’s sinfullness (as many Protestant teachers have said AIDS sufferes do) even after accepting Christ (AIDS is not cured by conversion), what would incline one to believe that the Christian would not be subject to personal suffering for his sins? And if that suffering were insufficient in life, why would Gop deny that soul a chance to become perfected hereafter since nothing imperfect can come before the Holy One.
If you reply that Christ suffered for us, although most certainly true, why would He insist upon the necessity of our uniting ourselves to Him in His passion (Mk: 8,34). Why, if I had begun, however slowly, to surrender my will to that of my heavenly Father, and were interrupted by death, would a merciful God deny me the opportunity to complete that painful surrender?
There is work involved in washing myself in the Blood of the Lamb as all members of the Body of Christ must. And I can help other members of that Body, (whether living or dead) through my own sufferings which can make up for whatever is lacking in Christ’s sacrifice (Col:1,24). Prayer for the deceased, practiced from the earliest days of the Christian people as well as by their Jewish ancestors, is perhaps the greatest act of charity for we can never see how it benefits us in this life.
The following scriptures may prove helpful: Matt:12,32 (some sins forgiven in this world, some in the world to come); 1Cor:3,15; 2Tim: 1,18 (where Paul prays for the deceased Onesiphorus). Additionally, those “under the earth” (Phil: 2,10; Rev 5, 3, 13) who confess Christ as Lord (No one can confess Christ as Lord except in the Holy Spirit).
 
ANSWER:

At least 2 places in the Protestant Bible come to mind where prayers for the dead are mentioned. One in the shortened Protestant Old Testament and one in the New Testament.

In 2 SM 3:35 David prays and fasts for Abner after Abner’s death.

In 2 TM 1:16-18 Paul prays for Onesiphorus after his death. He also prays for the needs of his survivng family and specifically for mercy upon the judgment of his soul.


Glad to help.

Yours in Christ,

Veritashunter
May I ask what the “SM” stand for in your first reference?
 
May I ask what the “SM” stand for in your first reference?
SM = Samuel
GN = Genesis
LV = Leviticus
LK = Luke
PT =Peter
RV = Revelation

And so on.

The use of longer phonic extensions such as SAM for Samuel and REV for Revelation are an innovation of recent centuries. The original abbbreviations to the books of the Bible were made as short as possible to conserve die letters that had to be placed in a printing press. Consider that use of more letters would require a greater deal of time, effort, and labor in antique styles of the printing press. Also, the more letters that are utilized increase the opportunity for error.

The chapter and verse designations were also not assigned to the text of the Bible until the 11th and 12th centuries for use in study of particular passages as compared to one another.

Sorry for the long explanation…just some useless info that has been bouncing around in my head for years.

Another reference of the New Testament to the Deuterocanonicals that cannot be associated with other scriptures in the Protestant canon is that which is found in Revelation. Please take the time to read TB 12:12-17 (Tobit) then read RV 1:4, RV 8:3-4, and RV 5:8.

We can all agree that the Book of Tobit was found in the Dead Sea Scrolls so it positively predates the Book of Revelation (or more properly named “The Apocalypse of St. John”) which was penned in the latter most part of the 1st century. Specifically, Tobit 12:15 reveals the Angel St. Raphael as one of the 7 holy angels of God (the Great Angels). The Book of Tobit also describes some of Raphael’s specific responsibilities in heaven as one of the 7 holy angels of God that directly correspond with the accounts of John in RV. So, these writings revealed parts of the heavenly vision centuries before they wre revealed to John.

You will find these same references to the acts of the angels in Revelation and Tobit as noted and no where else in Sacred Scripture. There are many many more comparisons such as these that show no other Jewish root text in Sacred Scripture except in the Deuterocanonicals.

Your in Christ,

Veritashunter
Former Protestant
 
Actually; one does not need any such dubious, one-sided historical arguments and intellectual cheats to decide the truth on this one.

If the apocrypha is indeed inspired scipture, then it would NOT contradict the 66 books of the Bible. There is nowhere that the Bible would agree with Maccabees or anything else in praying for the dead. If Catholics would come back to their Protestant roots, then it would be the Bible only, and none of this mixed up the Bible Plus…

Can anyone tell us where the idea of praying for the dead would be found in the Protestant Bible?
Another posted alreadly given at least 2 Scriptures within the Protestant Bible that supports praying for the dead.

The fact is that none of the deuteo’s contradict the other 66 books in the Bible. They are inspired Scriptures that was accepted by the Early Christians (even Renowed Protestant Scholar J.N.D Kelly admits this [in his book Early Christian Doctrines])

There is no “Protestant roots”. Protestantism is only 500 years old! Go back where? Christ Church that been around for 2,000 years!

Finally, there is no Scripture to support the “Bible alone” theory. In fact, St. Paul believe otherwise (2 Thess. 2:15, 3:6, 1 Cor. 11:2). So unless you have another Scripture that refutes St. Paul, I suggest you come back to the Historical Christianity.
 
ANSWER:

At least 2 places in the Protestant Bible come to mind where prayers for the dead are mentioned. One in the shortened Protestant Old Testament and one in the New Testament.

In 2 SM 3:35 David prays and fasts for Abner after Abner’s death.


Glad to help.

Yours in Christ,

Veritashunter
You haven’t helped at all. You have definitely misquoted Scripture here. I asked for a Scripture reference that proved we are to pray for the dead. You gave this:
2Sa 3:35 And when all the people came to cause David to eat meat while it was yet day, David sware, saying, So do God to me, and more also, if I taste bread, or ought else, till the sun be down.
How does this tell us to pray for the dead? It has nothing to do with the subject at hand.
 
If the apocrypha is indeed inspired scipture, then it would NOT contradict the 66 books of the Bible. There is nowhere that the Bible would agree with Maccabees or anything else in praying for the dead. If Catholics would come back to their Protestant roots, then it would be the Bible only, and none of this mixed up the Bible Plus…
I love when they lie for Jesus. There is no evidence that many protestant beliefs were in existance before the Reformation.
Period. If one argues the oposite the burden of proof is on you.

The deuterocanonicals are actually one of the Catholic points that is easier to defend. I think the Reformers went FUBAR on this.
The fact is that most ECFs accepted those books as inspired and preached and commented on them. St: Melito, St Jerome and St Athanasius (at one time) were the exceptions. The rest were perfectly fine with those books and many Jewish scholars think those books, (Wisdom and Ben Sirach) do belong in the NT and have called those books as “prechristian”.
 
I love when they lie for Jesus. There is no evidence that many protestant beliefs were in existance before the Reformation.
Period. If one argues the oposite the burden of proof is on you.

The deuterocanonicals are actually one of the Catholic points that is easier to defend. I think the Reformers went FUBAR on this.
The fact is that most ECFs accepted those books as inspired and preached and commented on them. St: Melito, St Jerome and St Athanasius (at one time) were the exceptions. The rest were perfectly fine with those books and many Jewish scholars think those books, (Wisdom and Ben Sirach) do belong in the NT and have called those books as “prechristian”.
Most of what YOU call “ECFs” were way out of line with the Bible in many areas.
 
But the ECFs selected and edited the books that go in the Bible.
Go figure.🤷
 
Most of what YOU call “ECFs” were way out of line with the Bible in many areas.
You’ve made quite a few assertions in this thread, but you haven’t been able to do much more than just that. Now please tell us just who among those we call early Chirch Fathers were “way out of line with the Bible in many areas.” Be specific. You made a charge, a charge against the genuine Christianity of some unnamed Church Fathers; either support that charge with facts or retract it.
Please don’t take this personally; I realize that you are trying to justify your position. The problem with that purported justification is that it wrongly treats history, Sacred Scripture, and early Christians, and it is that mistreatment to which I take exception. Either back up your charge of being out of line with specifics or retract the charge.
 
You’ve made quite a few assertions in this thread, but you haven’t been able to do much more than just that. Now please tell us just who among those we call early Chirch Fathers were “way out of line with the Bible in many areas.” Be specific. You made a charge, a charge against the genuine Christianity of some unnamed Church Fathers; either support that charge with facts or retract it.
You guys are the ones who keep trying to say that the ECFs all support the idea of praying to and for the dead. Therefore, in keeping with the topic of this thread; I can be specific to the concern of the OP.

There are three main positions on the Apocrypha, held by the various Christian Churches/Church Fathers (so called):

1/ The Roman Catholic Church has given 12 of these books full canonical status.

**2/ **The Church Of England, The Lutheran, and Zurich reformed Churches hold that these books are “useful;” but that they are not canonical.

3/ The Calvinistic and other reformed Churches have plainly set forth their position in The Westminister Confession of Faith; (1647), and it reads like this: “The books commonly called Apocrypha” not being of divine inspiration, are no part of the canon of Scripture; and therefore are of no authority in the Church of God, nor to be any otherwise approved, or made use of, than any other “human” writings.

Why don’t Protestants today accept the books of The Apocrypha; on the same basis as the other 66 books of the Bible?

There are three major reasons; in addition to many other ones.

**1/ **Although the Apocrypha was produced by Jews, they were not accepted by the Jewish people as a part of the official Hebrew Canon. The Jews Of The Intertestamental period seem, in fact, to have been aware of the absence of the spiritual gift which alone qualified men to write sacred Scripture.

**2/ **There has always, in history, been a great deal of uncertainty on the part of the Church, as to whether these books should be accepted as truly inspired. (Canonized). Throughout Church history, Church fathers and theologians have recognized a big difference between the Old Testament Scriptures, and the books of The Apocrypha.

3/ The books of The Apocrypha plainly teach doctrines that bluntly contradict the writings of The Old Testament Scriptures:

a) Prayers and offerings for the dead, (2 Macc 12:41-45, Baruch 3:4)

b) The book of Tobit presents an admixture of piety, folklore, and magic. The demon Asmodeus is represented as a jealous murderer of a young woman’s seven successive bridegrooms; but is finally “exorcised” by the burning entrails of a fish. (Tobit 6: 1-8, 8:1-9). Also, a potent medicine derived from the gall of this same fish, cures a father’s blindness which had been caused by bird droppings. (Tobit 2:9, 10:6-8, 11:7-15).

c) Judith’s language and conduct are characterized by double-dealing and falsehood being met with God’s approval, and with God’s assistance. (Judith 9:10, 13).

d) The Wisdom Of Solomon teaches the theories of Plato, saying that a person’s body is a mere hindrance to the soul. (WS 9:15). It also borrow’s Plato’s doctrine of the pre-existence of souls. (WS 8:19-20).

If what you call the ECFs support prayers to the dead, or for the dead; or for any of the other points mentioned above; they are indeed, far from the Bible.
 
You guys are the ones who keep trying to say that the ECFs all support the idea of praying to and for the dead. Therefore, in keeping with the topic of this thread; I can be specific to the concern of the OP.

There are three main positions on the Apocrypha, held by the various Christian Churches/Church Fathers (so called):

1/ The Roman Catholic Church has given 12 of these books full canonical status.

**2/ **The Church Of England, The Lutheran, and Zurich reformed Churches hold that these books are “useful;” but that they are not canonical.

3/ The Calvinistic and other reformed Churches have plainly set forth their position in The Westminister Confession of Faith; (1647), and it reads like this: “The books commonly called Apocrypha” not being of divine inspiration, are no part of the canon of Scripture; and therefore are of no authority in the Church of God, nor to be any otherwise approved, or made use of, than any other “human” writings.

Why don’t Protestants today accept the books of The Apocrypha; on the same basis as the other 66 books of the Bible?

There are three major reasons; in addition to many other ones.

**1/ **Although the Apocrypha was produced by Jews, they were not accepted by the Jewish people as a part of the official Hebrew Canon. The Jews Of The Intertestamental period seem, in fact, to have been aware of the absence of the spiritual gift which alone qualified men to write sacred Scripture.

**2/ **There has always, in history, been a great deal of uncertainty on the part of the Church, as to whether these books should be accepted as truly inspired. (Canonized). Throughout Church history, Church fathers and theologians have recognized a big difference between the Old Testament Scriptures, and the books of The Apocrypha.

3/ The books of The Apocrypha plainly teach doctrines that bluntly contradict the writings of The Old Testament Scriptures:

a) Prayers and offerings for the dead, (2 Macc 12:41-45, Baruch 3:4)

b) The book of Tobit presents an admixture of piety, folklore, and magic. The demon Asmodeus is represented as a jealous murderer of a young woman’s seven successive bridegrooms; but is finally “exorcised” by the burning entrails of a fish. (Tobit 6: 1-8, 8:1-9). Also, a potent medicine derived from the gall of this same fish, cures a father’s blindness which had been caused by bird droppings. (Tobit 2:9, 10:6-8, 11:7-15).

c) Judith’s language and conduct are characterized by double-dealing and falsehood being met with God’s approval, and with God’s assistance. (Judith 9:10, 13).

d) The Wisdom Of Solomon teaches the theories of Plato, saying that a person’s body is a mere hindrance to the soul. (WS 9:15). It also borrow’s Plato’s doctrine of the pre-existence of souls. (WS 8:19-20).

If what you call the ECFs support prayers to the dead, or for the dead; or for any of the other points mentioned above; they are indeed, far from the Bible.
  1. Nowhere in the scripture will you find any prohibition of praying to the dead or of praying for the dead. The citation against necromancy is just that - against sumoning the dead to gain information from them… If there were a citation forbidding it, Orthodox Jews would not be required to say Kaddish for deceased parents. Prayer for the dead in Judaism antedates Christianity.
  2. The only reason ANY books are accepted as scripture is because the Church says that they are. What Jews said after they no longer had authority to rule on spiritual matters is irrelevant to Christians. They lacked the Spirit Who inspired the scriptures or they would have recognized the Messiah.
  3. There has not ‘always’ been a question of the inspiration of these books. 2 Peter probably caused more controversy, but you accept it as inspired. There may have persons who questioned their canonicity, but once it was decided upon the case was closed, just as the nature of Christ’s consubstantiality with the Father was closed after Nicea although it was questioned previously.
  4. You object to Judith. Do you also object to Abraham’s outright lies to Abimelech in Gen 20? Perhaps we should remove Genesis from the canon.
  5. Tobit contains a murderous demon. Peter warns (1Pt 5,8) the demon is a roaring lion seeking whom he may devour. Where is the contradiction? It would seem that you don’t believe that demons can cause physical harm, like throwing a posessed boy into a fire (Mt 17, 14-17) That an angel whose name means ‘God heals’ would advise of fish gall as a cure for blindness is no stranger than curing blindness by using spittle to make clay and applying it.
  6. Wisdom indeed says that the body weighs down the soul. And Christ tells us to pluck out our eyes and cut off our hands if they obstruct the right ordering of the soul. Where is the contradiction?
    And now I must correct your reading of Wis 8, 19-20. The ‘soul’ that he received is not the immortal soul of which we speak, but clearly the disposition that was given to him, which would also be rendered as psyche in Greek

    And finally, you have yet to name those early Fathers, nor have you shown so much as one instance of of their being “way out of line with the Bible in many areas.”
 
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