K
KarrollKid04
Guest
I got into a discussion tonight with a proponent of gay “marriage.” His claim was that the Church will come around to accepting homosexual activity because the Church has done so with other issues. For example, the Church now looks back on the Inquisition as a disgrace, but fully embraced the Inquisition at the time. Or, the Church looks back on witch burning with embarrassment, but had no problem with this back then. You could also mention the Crusades and slavery. So, he argues that the Church now condemns homosexual behavior, but will one day change her opinion and look back on how “naive” she was.
How do I respond to these claims? I know that Church dogma does not change, but it does seem that the Church’s position on issues has changed over the years… and does this mean it could change regarding the morality of homosexual activity? I am definitely not a good apologist, so any help would be appreciated! Thanks!
J-
How do I respond to these claims? I know that Church dogma does not change, but it does seem that the Church’s position on issues has changed over the years… and does this mean it could change regarding the morality of homosexual activity? I am definitely not a good apologist, so any help would be appreciated! Thanks!
J-