H
hamburglar
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What is the defense for the belief that the marital act of sexual intercourse must be both unitive and procreative?
Gen 1:28; 2:23f.What is the defense for the belief that the marital act of sexual intercourse must be both unitive and procreative?
Humanity didn’t develop sex for pleasure, but for babies. Pleasure was developed to encourage more reproduction. Therefore to have sex for mere pleasure (contra. 1 Thessalonians 4:3-5) is to neglect the purpose of sex and do injury to nature. It is, in other words, an abuse of one’s body, and therefore a grave evil.What is the defense for the belief that the marital act of sexual intercourse must be both unitive and procreative?
The CCC does a reasonable job on defining this. I think there have been some very good posts on this and I’ll try to look them up. Key point is procreative does not mean “trying to make a baby” as some will have others believe. So if the question is, can you have sex without trying to conceive? Yes! It just can’t be a contracepted act.What is the defense for the belief that the marital act of sexual intercourse must be both unitive and procreative?
Well, “unitive” means “with a partner”What is the defense for the belief that the marital act of sexual intercourse must be both unitive and procreative?
Because the sexual act must be both unitive and procreative. In vitro and artificial insemination remove procreation from the unitive context of the marriage act.My reason for posting this was for helping to explain why procedures like in vitro fertilization and artificial insemination are not moral.
So the defense is that it is not the natural act of marriage that God intends. You are separating the unitive nature of sexual intercourse, and doing it in an unnatural way.
So how does this explain why the aforementioned procedures are not licit?
From the Catechism:My reason for posting this was for helping to explain why procedures like in vitro fertilization and artificial insemination are not moral.
So the defense is that it is not the natural act of marriage that God intends. You are separating the unitive nature of sexual intercourse, and doing it in an unnatural way.
So how does this explain why the aforementioned procedures are not licit?