P
pyro_alchemist
Guest
All over the internet I see the Greek word “porneia” defined as “serious sexual sin” such as fornication, harlotry, adultery or incest while on Catholic sites I see it defined as “illicit or invalid”. This has been a bit of an embarrassment to me when I have tried to explain Matthew 19:3-9 to my non-Catholic friends. On the surface it would seem that the Catholic Church uses the “invalid” definition to justify its complete prohibition of divorce while the rest of the world defines porneia as fornication. I don’t for one moment believe this! There has to be an explanation. Anyone here have one?
I have read this (scroll down to “Q: In Matthew 19:3-9 when the Pharisees are questioning Jesus about divorce”) but it really doesn’t help me understand why there are two possible (and quite different) interpretations.
I have read this (scroll down to “Q: In Matthew 19:3-9 when the Pharisees are questioning Jesus about divorce”) but it really doesn’t help me understand why there are two possible (and quite different) interpretations.