St. Felicity,
I’m sorry. You’re quite right that I was rude and defensive. There’s a lot of prejudice and misinformation on this board (that’s not a judgment on all Catholics here by any means), and that is one of the reasons I’m here. If I can’t take the heat I should stay out of the kitchen. Probably I should imitate some of my cyber-acquaintances and take a break for Lent–but I decided not to do that this year. However, at least I can try to show more patience and not assume ill-will.
st_felicity:
the Holy Roman Empire allowed the new religion to continue, but did not allow it to forbid Catholic practice
No, even according to the Catholic Encyclopedia they forbade any further
extension of “evangelical” doctrines and practices. In other words, Catholic rulers could suppress the evangelicals, but not vice versa. How come you are ignoring this? The CE is somewhat to blame because it slants the info to
emphasize the suppression of the Mass and other Catholic practices as the main issue. But if you read what the article said, it makes it clear that the new ideas had
no legal protection except where they were already established.
st_felicity:
Being able to forbid a religion is a matter of conscience?
Yes, it was in the 16th century. Bear in mind that we aren’t talking about voluntary groups meeting together on
either side. We’re talking about an official, established Church. By 1529 many cities and territories had introduced Protestant reforms in the churches under their control (or had allowed such reforms to be introduced by pressure from below). This typically resulted in a situation where some churches in the city were celebrating the Mass in a very traditional way, while others were holding evangelical preaching services and celebrating the Lord’s Supper according to evangelical beliefs.
Both sides saw this as a very awkward, unfortunate state of affairs.
Neither side believed in toleration as a good thing (at least toleration of public practice–most Protestants, especially the Lutherans, did claim that private belief should not be regulated by the government). It was an either/or. Either the government would sponsor the old ideas or the new. So to put it as if the issue was whether
Catholicism would be tolerated is extremely misleading. This was the relevant issue at the time because of places like Strasbourg, where there were only four churches where the Mass was being celebrated by 1529 (the Mass was totally abolished in February of that year, a month before the decree of Speyer). However, the decree clearly stated that no one was to be
allowed to embrace evangelical doctrines from that point on. The Edict of Worms (which totally banned Luther and his ideas) was to be enacted
except where such an act would result in a rebellion of the people. In such places no
new changes were to be introduced. This is not about being asked to tolerate the voluntary practice of Catholicism (the issue just wasn’t being put in those terms). It was about maintaining the status quo and persecuting all those who tried to change it. (Both Anabaptists and “sacramentarians”–those who denied the bodily presence of Christ in the Eucharist–were not to be tolerated at all. The “Protestants” didn’t have a problem persecuting the Anabaptists, but refused to persecute the “sacramentarians.”) The authority of the bishops was also to be reinstated. This was not simply about “tolerating Catholicism,” and insofar as the CE has given you that impression, it was misleading.
I recognize that I’m making a fine distinction, but the reason I’m insisting on it is that
you raised the question of the relationship of “evangelical” to “Protestant.” I’m pointing out that “evangelical” best describes the self-understanding of Luther and his colleagues/followers from the beginning. They saw themselves as fighting for the “Gospel.” The term “Protestant” was introduced in a political context, when the Empire was trying to force the princes and city-states to call a halt to further religious changes and roll back the changes already introduced as much as possible. The “Protest” was against what the princes saw as imperial tyranny and on behalf of their duty to follow the Word of God where they believed it led. It did not primarily arise as a description of Luther’s theology per se–“evangelical” is a more accurate description there (at least in terms of Luther’s self-understanding). That’s the only point I’m trying to make here. “Evangelical” is not some kind of whitewashing term introduced because “Protestant” is distasteful. It has deeper roots in our self-understanding than the term “Protestant” itself, which originally was more a political than a theological term (not that the two can be separated in the 16th century).
In Christ,
Edwin