Demons & Unclean Spirits

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I have a question (wanting your opinion on the matter to help me with my own).
What is the difference between unclean spirits and demons?
In to Matthew chapter 10, verses 1 and 8.
1)And when he had called unto him] his twelve disciples, he gave them power against unclean spirits, to cast them out, and to heal all manner of sickness and all manner of disease.
8)Heal the sick, cleanse the lepers, raise the dead, cast out devils: freely ye have received, freely give.

If they are the same thing, why would that one chapter have two different words? And are demons a form of spirit? If so, how did they reproduce with mortal women in Genesis. And, if there are unclean spirits, are there such thing as clean spirits?

We see the similiarity of unclean spirits and demon in these passages: They can both possess. . .But what is the difference between the two?
 
This topic of demons and angelic spirits has been a favorite of mine for some time.

I am now reading two books by Father G. Amorth that deals with this subject.

In a chapter that treats spirits Father Amorth writes that there are only two kinds of spirits. There are the spirits that come from God and there are those spirits that come from Satan. Those that come from Satan are called demons or evil spirits. Would you say that a demon is clean or unclean? The word unclean describes those demons that are not clean. The clean spirits are from God/heaven.

Why the translator decided to use one word instead of the other is not important. Unclean spirit = demon, since a spirit from God cannot be unclean.
 
It is my understanding that demons, devils, evil spirits, etc. are all names for fallen angels.
 
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Finex:
…If so, how did they reproduce with mortal women in Genesis. And, if there are unclean spirits, are there such thing as clean spirits?..
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Peace be to you.

It was not angels from heaven that copulated with mortal women in Genesis, the “sons of God” in there refer to the descendants of Seth, a boy of Adam. This is one of the reasons why the Book of Enoch was considered apocryphal and thus excluded from the Old Testament Canon.

God love you.
 
It is my understanding that demons and unclean spirits have no real differences whatsoever. Both terms can be used interchangeably to refer to the rebellious angels who were cast out of heaven.

Gerry 🙂
 
Peace be to you!

By the way, I’ve always wondered why we call demons with names like “the demon of lust”, “the demon of greed” and the like? Does this mean that a single demon tempts us to commit only one type of sin, which is why we call him with that name? But can’t a demon be capable of tempting us into committing all kinds of sin under the sun? Is this practice of naming demons found in early to medieval times?
Thank you and God love you.
 
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preyoflove:
Peace be to you!

By the way, I’ve always wondered why we call demons with names like “the demon of lust”, “the demon of greed” and the like? Does this mean that a single demon tempts us to commit only one type of sin, which is why we call him with that name? But can’t a demon be capable of tempting us into committing all kinds of sin under the sun? Is this practice of naming demons found in early to medieval times?
Thank you and God love you.
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Demons can tempt us into all kinds of sin. It simply does not make sense to limit the capabilities of such entities to tempt others to commit one type of sin only. Just as men can commit all kinds of sin, then so can demons tempt us into committing more than one type of sin. Calling demons with vivid names like “demon of lust” or “demon of avarice” is simply a recognition that those sins can be produced by allowing oneself to be tempted, and not that each sin has a particular demon “sponsor”.

This is similar to the case of saints. While we call St. Joseph as the patron saint of the workingman, that doesn’t mean St. Joseph can only help those kinds of people.

Gerry 🙂
 
All I know is that when my Bible study group started talking about this topic, my husband pointed to me to give an example of an unclean spirit. 😃
 
This was posted,“By the way, I’ve always wondered why we call demons with names like “the demon of lust”, “the demon of greed” and the like? Does this mean that a single demon tempts us to commit only one type of sin, which is why we call him with that name? But can’t a demon be capable of tempting us into committing all kinds of sin under the sun? Is this practice of naming demons found in early to medieval times?
Thank you and God love you.”

What I know about this subject comes from reading several books written by famous Exorcists and from listening to one Priest (a Holy Cross Father) over a semester at a University. May I venture a couple of thoughts?

Father G. Amorth (the Pope’s own Exorcist) and Father Malachi Martin both say that usually there are several demons in a person that have to be exorcised - almost never just one! During an exorcism the Priest will ask toward the end when the main demon is weak, two questions: 1. Who is there with you?,2. when are you leaving? They , the exorcists did not call a demon names, such as demon of alcoholism, etc. If the demon has a Biblical name it means one thing, if the demon has a popular modern name it is another kind of demon. I will have to go back to the books for that meaning.

The demon tries to hide and not speak. But when Jesus and the Virgin Mary is invoked…the demon suffers much pain. It is then that the demon may ask the priests why he is torturing him so much. It is common for the demon to call the priest a murderer. Some demons have said that it is more comfortable in hell than to face Jesus. I will go search the books.
 
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