Andre, you only asked one question, at the bottom of your post, but I’ll comment on a couple of your assertions.
yes, I was going to ask you two or three questions, but the post was getting quite long.
I don’t have a problem with anyone regarding the earth as the most important place in the universe. In many senses it is, (at least relatively for us). That is a religious or a philosophical view, and has nothing to do with the physical location of the earth within the universe, which is what this thread has been about.
I agree; and my point was that since no true motion can be given to the earth relative to the universe, to isolate the sun and make it at rest, while being a good model, cannot, in my opinion be regarded as the only true reality anymore than the earth centered model. Both are equal, in my opinion, and are used for different purposes.
Also there is no such thing as an “only true frame” . One frame of reference is no “truer” than any other.
I fully agree; this is part of my argument.
One of the reasons put forward to support the idea that earth was at the centre of the universe was the incorrect notion that the earth is the only source of gravity in the universe.
I don’t think that this is correct. The laws of classical mechanics were poorly understood before Newton formulated them, and no-one understood that an object in free-fall experiences no forces. It was thought that an object required a constant force to keep it in motion, and it was further thought that if the earth was rushing through space we should feel it. The erroneous Greek argument, which survived until Galileo’s time, was not about accelerated motion but constant motion.
I agree with most of what you wrote; I am certainly not claiming that the heliocentric model has nothing to do with discovering a deeper form of reality concerning the physical laws within our universe.I am saying, however, that the laws we discovered throught the heliocentric model most probably form a special case of a much deeper theory, since many elements are unkown.
Accelerated motions,such as found in the movements given to the earth within a heliocentric model does seem to contradict, at first view, the laws concerning inertia, which is why I believe the philosophers of the time (middle ages) had a hard time accepting such a view.
Ptolemy, for example,said after explaining the Aristotilian laws of motion:
**" …if the earth moved,even by it’s daily rotation, the contrary of what was said would necessarilty take place.For the movement which would traverse the total circuit of the earth in twenty- four hours would necessarily be of an unsurpassable velocity. Now things that are suddenly and violently whirled around are seen to be utterly unfitted for reuniting,and the more unified are seemed to become dispersed, unless some constant force constrains them to stick together, and a long time ago, the earth would have passed beyong the heavens; and a fortiori so would all the living creatures, and all the separate masses which could by all means remain unshaken. Moreover, freely falling bodies would not arrive at the places appointed them,and certainly not in perpendicular
line which they assume so quickly. **
I notice a couple of things here. Ptolemy, who lived in the second century of the christian era, argues against the hypothesis of the orbiting earth’s model. This seems to greatly suggest that Copernicus wasn’t introducing anything new, and that such a hypothesis existed close to, if not before the time of Christ.
Secondly, his argument against such an hypothesis was totally philosophical, if not scientific in essence. I question why we make the middle ages to be so barbaric, unreasonable and totally supersticious.
In fact, although there are no forces arising from the earth’s translation through space, we can measure forces on the earth’s surface due to its diurnal rotation.
This was one of the questions I wanted to ask your opinion about. Could it be possible that such Coriolis effect found in Foucault’s pendulum actually be due to a deviation of the centre of gravity caused by the change in relative positions between the sun, the earth and the moon? If so, then could this not be considered a case of equivalence principle found in GR?
Andre