L
Lief_Erikson
Guest
I was adding to my last post and I ran out of time, so I’ll just spread over to here . . .
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I bet that this is true, it’s what I’ve seen. Also, I keep seeing Medieval popes or writers occasionally casually citing the Old Testament as the basis for some of their laws against heresy or witchcraft or other things. They definitely felt completely free to do that. A Protestant writer about the period that I read wrote, “The separation between the Old and New Testaments hadn’t been made clear yet . . .” Ah, the joys of EnlightenmentI’ve had to piece together what I have from a combination of the Bible study, personal theological reflection, and studying the Medieval Ages, including a variety of popes and Church Fathers. I think studying the Medieval Ages, including the encyclicals of some of the Medieval and 18th-19th century popes might help you on this point, but the problem is, as far as I’ve been able to see, a lot of the writers back in the Medieval era just took what I’m saying largely for granted. So they didn’t feel a need to provide a theological exposition of it, for everyone agreed about them and knew this. Which is a pain in the neck for me, but I understand where they’re coming from. I mean, I keep reading things like popes or councils just saying, “These are to be the legal penalties for sins X, Y and Z, for these sins are abominations,” but back then, who had even thought of such a thing as religious freedom and unbiblical justice? Those would have been novel thoughts, so they didn’t have to fight that much. I need to research it more, and I think the transitional popes might have more detail.