Did Abram commit a sin?

[josea]

Did Abram commit a sin?

Sometimes I have difficulties to understand the Bible.

Here an example:

In Gen 16.1 Abram took a slave to have a child because his wife was infertile. How should we understand this? Was that adultery? Or was that polygamy allowed by God those times? Was this kind of action allowed by God then and not anymore? Was that intrinsic evil?

Regards,

Jose

 

[mozier]

Back in Old Testament times, it was common for men to have numerous wives, concubines, and the like. It was considered quite normal and acceptable. Look at Abraham with Hagar, who was his wife Sarah’s servant. In fact, Sarah was the one who told Abraham to go at it with Hagar!

Then there was Jacob with his two wives, Leah and Rachel. If you look at the geneologies listed in Genesis, you will see men with many wives. Later on, David had his concubine to keep him warm when he was in old age. And of course, Solomon with his numerous wives and concubines wins the honor as the Bible’s number one horndog.

But it was Jesus who got it all back on track for us when he emphasized that the original intention of God was to have it one man to one woman. St. Paul then runs with the idea with his comparison of a marriage of a man and a woman to the image of Christ as the groom and the Church as the bride. As well, you may recall St. Paul’s admonition that a bishop was to be the husband of only one wife!

Personally, I think one woman is plenty for any man! I don’t know how those Old Testament guys did it. Maybe that is how they lived to be 900 years old. :yup:

 

[josea]

mozier:

Back in Old Testament times, it was common for men to have numerous wives, concubines, and the like. It was considered quite normal and acceptable.

But to be considered normal and acceptable it is not enough. Why God did not put things in order and wait until Jesus’ times to do it?

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mozier:

Personally, I think one woman is plenty for any man! I don’t know how those Old Testament guys did it. Maybe that is how they lived to be 900 years old. :yup:

Jajajajajajaja… me too!http://forums.catholic-questions.org/images/icons/icon10.gif

 

[AnglicanRite]

josea:

But to be considered normal and acceptable it is not enough. Why God did not put things in order and wait until Jesus’ times to do it?

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http://forums.catholic-questions.org/images/icons/icon10.gif

This is a interesting topic!

I think that the reason why God did not put things in order was answered when Jesus was asked by the Pharisees why Moses allowed divorce. Jesus answered that it was because of the people’s sin and rebellion that God allowed it, but that was not the way God wanted things, and so Jesus taught what God wanted from the beginning. Christians then followed this example and it caught on as Christianity spread through time and distance.

My best guess, but I think that it makes sense. Anyone else?

 

[dmm2000]

Josea,

If you look at what happened when Abram took things into his own hands (Adam listening to Eve), instead of trusting God, his decision did cause striff between the descendants of Ishmael and Isaac. God did not intend for him to have more than one wife.

Isaac was faithful to God’s word, that the TWO would become one, and married only Rebekah.

Jacob, also went against God’s word in marrying more than one wife. Notice it is Judah a son of his first wife in which the convenant promise to Abraham is fulfilled, his first wives descendant.