J
jblake
Guest
English Bibles that did not contain deuterocanonical books were common enough by 1650 for the Archbishop of Canterbury to declare that publication of the Bible without those books was a criminal offense. (BTW, the Anglican Canon is larger than the Catholic Canon.)Actually, it was the Protestants who removed them in the 18th century.
a) 1500 years would be slightly closer to the mark;So the question really is, why did the protestants remove these books which were in every bible from the time of for nearly 2000 years?
b) Liturgical Protestant Churches retained the Deuterocanonical books for the Lectionary readings. Most other usage of the Dueterocanonical material faded away.
c) The non-Liturgical Protestant Churches explicitly rejected the Deuterocanonical material. Depending upon the specific church, this could have happened anytime between 1500 and 1900. The most common reason is that the Council of Jaminia defined the OT in AD 90 and the NT was defined back around 200 AD. (I’ve forgotten who/what they point to, for support for the NT Canon. Probably Marcion, Origen, Clement of Alexandria, Turtullian, Irenaeus, and Justin Martyr.)
d) “Sola Scriptura”, as understood by the non-liturgical Protestant Churches has come to mean: “If it isn’t found in the Gospels and the Epistles, it isn’t scriptural”.
e) The more pertinent question is: “Why did they bother keeping the Old Testament?” Historically, the translation process has been the Gospels, then the Epistles, and then the Old Testament, starting with Psalms, the the Torah, then the rest of the Tanakh.
xan
jonathon