Did christ leave any literature of his own

  • Thread starter Thread starter simpleas
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
patrick457 said:
The only passage where one might infer that Jesus could not read is from John 7:14-15 (“Now about the middle of the festival Jesus went up into the temple and began teaching. The Jews therefore began to marvel, saying, ‘How is it that this one knows letters, having never learned?’”), but even then it could simply be an idiom for “did not have a formal education as a teacher.”

There’s also a paper by Craig Evans about this topic. On the other hand, there’s also this by Chris Keith.
Click to expand...
Doesn’t knowing letters mean that he can read? Otherwise what good, and how impressed, are people going to be that he merely knew an alphabet.
 
irenaeuslyons said:
Doesn’t knowing letters mean that he can read? Otherwise what good, and how impressed, are people going to be that he merely knew an alphabet.
Click to expand...
The word grammata “letters” can be used to denote ‘learning’ in general, i.e. educational skill or even literary proficiency. In the context, what is being asked is how Jesus was so well-versed in expounding the Scriptures when He did not even have a formal education as a Torah-scholar (a ‘scribe’) under a prominent teacher.

About the middle of the feast Jesus went up into the temple and began teaching. The Jews therefore marveled, saying, “How is it that this man has learning, when he has never studied?” So Jesus answered them, “My teaching is not mine, but his who sent me. If anyone’s will is to do God’s will, he will know whether the teaching is from God or whether I am speaking on my own authority. The one who speaks on his own authority seeks his own glory; but the one who seeks the glory of him who sent him is true, and in him there is no falsehood. Has not Moses given you the law? Yet none of you keeps the law. Why do you seek to kill me?”
 
patrick457 said:
The word grammata “letters” can be used to denote ‘learning’ in general, i.e. educational skill or even literary proficiency. In the context, what is being asked is how Jesus was so well-versed in expounding the Scriptures when He did not even have a formal education as a Torah-scholar (a ‘scribe’) under a prominent teacher.

About the middle of the feast Jesus went up into the temple and began teaching. The Jews therefore marveled, saying, “How is it that this man has learning, when he has never studied?” So Jesus answered them, “My teaching is not mine, but his who sent me. If anyone’s will is to do God’s will, he will know whether the teaching is from God or whether I am speaking on my own authority. The one who speaks on his own authority seeks his own glory; but the one who seeks the glory of him who sent him is true, and in him there is no falsehood. Has not Moses given you the law? Yet none of you keeps the law. Why do you seek to kill me?”
Click to expand...
I see, thanks
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top