Did G_D lie to the jews?

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I have, many times. And I accept the Jewish interpretation of the passage. The suffering servant is not Jesus, it is the people of Israel (the Jewish people.)

If you’d like to read a line-by-line explanation of why this is so, let me know and I’ll post it for you.
I’ve seen it, but perhaps many here have not. St. Paul deals with this in Galatians 3:16.
 
inJESUS;3986540:
Abraham could not know the mind of God, evidently…so he said “lamb” because that was usually what was used. But God had a ram there instead.

I don’t see any deeper significance in it, sorry. Am I missing something?
it is just a detail that i remarked while reading the text and was curious about it.
 
One of the reasons why God hated the Canaanites was because they sacrificed humans. Human sacrifice was always very abhorrent to the God of Israel…this is also how Jews know He would never ask anyone to sacrifice a human, nor would He sacrifice one.
am not talking about humans sacrificing their sons to idols, but about God’s right to ask it. God did stop Abraham, but was His command morally wrong? that is, did He give an immoral order?

What about the angel’s speech that Abraham did not withold his son from him? any interpretation?
 
am not talking about humans sacrificing their sons to idols, but about God’s right to ask it. God did stop Abraham, but was His command morally wrong? that is, did He give an immoral order?

What about the angel’s speech that Abraham did not withold his son from him? any interpretation?
The angel was remarking that Abraham had passed the test of faith, because he did not even withhold his son from God’s service.
 
The angel was remarking that Abraham had passed the test of faith, because he did not even withhold his son from God’s service.
Here is the passage:

And Abraham stretched forth his hand, and took the knife to slay his son. 11 **And the angel of the LORD **called unto him out of heaven, and said: ‘Abraham, Abraham.’ And he said: ‘Here am I.’ 12 And he said: 'Lay not thy hand upon the lad, neither do thou any thing unto him; for now I know that thou art a God-fearing man, seeing thou hast not withheld thy son, thine only son, from Me.'

It was God Himself who was talking to Abraham in the first sentence.Then we read about the angel telling him |thine only son, from Me"

Is it interpreted that the angel speaks as if he were God Himself? because he could have continued the sentence normally by saying “thine only son, from God” instead of “me”. I know the angel is interepreted as God’s agent, but does this entail him speaking as if he were God? am not asking from a "Christian
" point of view, but from a monotheistic point of view.

What about my first question?🙂
 
God Does Not Lie. We Have Said That Different Religions Worship The Same God Only In Different Ways. There Is Nothing Wrong With Yom Kippur. No One Said One Needs An Intermediary To Confess To. You Can Go Out & Pray In The Woods If You Must. Frankly I Think It Is Rather Embarrassing To Talk To A Priest. Some Can Give You Catholic Guilt Syndrome.
 
G_D asked the high priest to sacrifice for the forgiveness of sins on the day of atonement.

Yet christians would have us believe that without jesus there was no forgiveness of sins.

Did G_D lie when He said that sins would be forgiven on ‘yom kippur’?
Jesus came to fulfill the law. Instead of forgiveness on Yom Kippur, now anyone who wants forgiveness only need to turn their lives to God; everyday and any day is fine. Thanks to the Lord our Saviour.

G-D certainly did not lie. Things merely changed as G-D’s plan for the salvation of mankind progressed.

The only thing left was for people to either accept or reject Jesus’ claims - was He a liar, a lunatic, or the Lord Himself?
 
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