Did God do opposite to His nature?

[Timi_Celcer]

Genesis 6:6 :The LORD regretted that he had made human beings on the earth, and his heart was deeply troubled.

He regretted that he made human beings? How could He regrett, He is God, He can see the future, he know what humans would of became? Also did he change His mind? Did he do opposite to His nature?

 

[dshix]

Genesis 6:6 :The LORD regretted that he had made human beings on the earth, and his heart was deeply troubled.

He regretted that he made human beings? How could He regrett, He is God, He can see the future, he know what humans would of became? Also did he change His mind? Did he do opposite to His nature?

This is figurative language used by the Old Testament writer. God does not have emotions, and can never change.

By saying God “regretted” this, the writer was simply trying to express in human terms that God was greatly displeased with the behavior of men on earth at the time of Noah.

 

[R_C]

This is figurative language used by the Old Testament writer. God does not have emotions, and can never change.

Indeed. Besides, God is omniscent - He foreknew everything before anything was made.

 

[Polycarp1]

God has His positive will to make things happen and His permissive will to allow things to happen. Much of the language used in the Old Testament prose makes us think that God inflicts suffering on us when in reality we are inflicting it on ourselves and others around and after us. It goes with God’s gift of freewill which is great if we use it wisely and like a curse if we don’t! God has to allow consequences of our actions or else freewill would be meaningless.

 

[Steveabrous]

God does not have emotions

By saying God “regretted” this, the writer was simply trying to express in human terms that God was greatly displeased with the behavior of men on earth at the time of Noah.

Isn’t displeasure an emotion?

 

[R_C]

Isn’t displeasure an emotion?

I have found a good resource in this article.

Aquinas believes that it is not in the nature (the properties) of God to sympathize with the experience of pain and suffering in the same way that we do. By this I mean that God’s impassible nature is such that there is no existence of passions (desires) that a human would have. Aquinas believed God has emotions (not passions) such as joy and love.

The effects of sin (of the angels and men) made it possible for man to suffer. Since this was not the will of God, it shows that it is not of the necessity of the divine nature to experience sympathetic grief, suffering, repentance etc. With the introduction of sin into the world by way of the free will of angels and men, God chose to incarnate the second person of the Trinity. This provides divine access to human nature and the experiential knowledge of suffering, grief .

We see the divine plan as unfolding within temporality such that we can say God became flesh at time X. The eternal nature of God demands the complete actualization of God within eternity. As such we can properly say God lives in an “ever-present now” such that he sees everything as present. The effects of God (incarnation) are thus seen from our vantage point as unfolding in time while to God they are ever-present.

(See a related post here.)

Does God suffer for our sins? I believe that in Christ Jesus, yes, He does.

He said, “Surely they are my people, children who will be true to me”; and so He became their Savior. In all their affliction he was afflicted, and it was no messenger or angel but His own Presence that saved them: in His love and mercy He redeemed them

 

[dshix]

I have found a good resource in this article.

(See a related post here.)

Does God suffer for our sins? I believe that in Christ Jesus, yes, He does.

^This.