Did Irenaeus write that Jesus was 50 when He died?

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I ran across this today and it is really strange.

On the “summary” part above Againt Heresies, Book 2 Chapter 22, on Newadvent.com,it says “The thirty aeons are not typified by the fact that Christ was baptized in his thirtieth year: he did not suffer in the twelfth month after his baptism, but was more than fifty years old when he died”

Did Irenaeus write this or did the staff there write it as a sort of summary?

Here is the text, section 5:
  1. They, however, that they may establish their false opinion regarding that which is written, “to proclaim the acceptable year of the Lord,” maintain that He preached for one year only, and then suffered in the twelfth month. [In speaking thus], they are forgetful to their own disadvantage, destroying His whole work, and robbing Him of that age which is both more necessary and more honourable than any other; that more advanced age, I mean, during which also as a teacher He excelled all others. For how could He have had disciples, if He did not teach? And how could He have taught, unless He had reached the age of a Master? For when He came to be baptized, He had not yet completed His thirtieth year, but was beginning to be about thirty years of age (for thus Luke, who has mentioned His years, has expressed it: “Now Jesus was, as it were, beginning to be thirty years old,” when He came to receive baptism); and, [according to these men,] He preached only one year reckoning from His baptism. On completing His thirtieth year He suffered, being in fact still a young man, and who had by no means attained to advanced age. Now, that the first stage of early life embraces thirty years, and that this extends onwards to the fortieth year, every one will admit; but from the fortieth and fiftieth year a man begins to decline towards old age, which our Lord possessed while He still fulfilled the office of a Teacher, even as the Gospel and all the elders testify; those who were conversant in Asia with John, the disciple of the Lord, [affirming] that John conveyed to them that information.
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Why would he say this? Or am I reading it wrong?
 
As a back up to Bonocore’s understanding, you may want to look up what the phrase means in John 8

John 8:57 Then the Jews said to Him, “You are not yet fifty years old, and have You seen Abraham?”

Why would they say 50 and not 40, if everyone knew that Jesus was only 33 at the time?

I haven’t researched this, but something to look up. Bonocore’s point is that Irenaeus means that Jesus was between 30 and 50, and that Jesus had reached the age of a Teacher “even as the Gospel testifies” (cf. possibly John’s Gospel, chapter 8 ?).

Phil P
 
Phil,

Yet again, excellent response. I have been idly wondering about that for the better part of a year. You 'da man.

God Bless,
RyanL
 
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