B
Beth10
Guest
I don’t think that is possible. The fact that women were held in low regard did influence Jesus’ actions, but in the opposite way you suggest: He showed women a special, dignified attitude in order to correct the more negative attitude held by the Romans. In that light, the fact that Jesus would not call them to the priesthood establishes a norm, because we can know He did not do it out of a disregard for women. I’ve never looked it up, but among the early Church Fathers, the same argument that we use today, about Jesus not ordaining women, was used for the same purpose we use it, i.e. to show that we cannot do so either. For example, in 225 A.D., the Didascalia says, “For he, God the Lord, Jesus Christ our Teacher, sent us, the twelve [apostles], out to teach the [chosen] people and the pagans. But there were female disciples among us: Mary of Magdala, Mary the daughter of Jacob, and the other Mary; he did not, however, send them out with us to teach the people. For, if it had been necessary that women should teach, then our Teacher would have directed them to instruct along with us.” (Didascalia 3:6:1–2) I definitely think that you have almost hit the nail on the head in your paragraph about the identity of Jesus. Jesus was the Son of Man, and the priesthood is supposed to be in His image. Therefore, to fulfill this image, He chooses men, who are already natural “sons of men.” It has nothing to do with the dignity of women; in Catholic history, women have a place of equal dignity, and special positions of honor, including in education, spiritual devotion, and the hall of saints. For more info, you may be interested in the following document:
Catholic History and Women’s Equality: A Timeline
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?p=12356238
I hope that helps. God bless!