Did Jesus Christ use the Divine Name?

[CutlerB]

This question does not to the verses Christ claims for himself the “I AM”. (e.g. John 8:58)

Rather, the Jehovah’s Witnesses claim He used the actual Divine Name “Yahweh” (or the faulty “Jehovah” as they say). To support this, they cite verses such as St John 17:6, 26, which read:

I have made thy name known to the men whom thou hast entrusted to me, chosen out of the world. They belonged to thee, and have become mine through thy gift, and they have kept true to thy word. …] I have revealed, and will reveal, thy name to them; so that the love thou hast bestowed upon me may dwell in them, and I, too, may dwell in them. (Douay-Rheims)

Or in their “translation”:

“I have made your name known to them [Jesus’ disciples] and will make it known. “In order that the love with which you [God] loved me may be in them and I in union with them.” (New World Translation)

They also claim that God wants us to use His Name, using verses such as Isaiah 12:4 in support.

The question, therefore, is this: Is their point correct? If not, how does one refute it?

 

[JerryZ]

No Jew EVER would dare use any of God’s name even when they write it omit the “o” out of respect.
The various names that God was known to the Israelites correpond to “attributes” that He wanted them to know of him Yahweh is actually a transliteration of the original YHWH name. He was know by the Israelites as the “Lord of Hosts”
Of course yehova is a modern transliteration of the original name. NO one knows HOW YHWH was originally pronounced (What sounds corresponded to that name) however since calling by name the Lord was NEVER done, maybe the point is moot.

Interestingly though when Moises asked God what was His name He answered with the famous “I AM” which is what Jesus called himself and allowed the Sanhedrin to kill Him.
Rightly on their eyes because He had called Himself GOD.

Peace

 

[CutlerB]

No Jew EVER would dare use any of God’s name even when they write it omit the “o” out of respect.
The various names that God was known to the Israelites correpond to “attributes” that He wanted them to know of him Yahweh is actually a transliteration of the original YHWH name. He was know by the Israelites as the “Lord of Hosts”
Of course yehova is a modern transliteration of the original name. NO one knows HOW YHWH was originally pronounced (What sounds corresponded to that name) however since calling by name the Lord was NEVER done, maybe the point is moot.

Interestingly though when Moises asked God what was His name He answered with the famous “I AM” which is what Jesus called himself and allowed the Sanhedrin to kill Him.
Rightly on their eyes because He had called Himself GOD.

Peace

Do you have other examples of names God gives for himself with references?

 

[Cachonga]

In Exodus 3:14 we find that the Greek Septuagint translates the Divine Name (Yahweh) as ἐγώ εἰμι (ego eimi - I AM in English). Jesus not only applies that to himself in John 8:5 ("… before Abraham was - I AM" (ἐγώ εἰμι)), but also in John 18:5 (“ἀπεκρίθησαν αὐτῷ· Ἰησοῦν τὸν Ναζωραῖον. λέγει αὐτοῖς· ἐγώ εἰμι. εἱστήκει δὲ καὶ Ἰούδας ὁ παραδιδοὺς αὐτὸν μετ᾽ αὐτῶν.” (BGT emphasis mine)). Many English translations have Jesus say, “I am he”, but the “he” is not found in the original Greek (He simply replies “I am”). Notice what happens in verse 6 when Jesus identifies himself with the Divine Name (“As soon therefore as he had said to them: I am he; they went backward, and fell to the ground.” (DRA). Again, the “he” is not in the original Greek).

As far as John 17:6, 26 or Isaiah 12:4, I would ask how, exactly, that would disprove Jesus’ claim to Divinity.

 

[CutlerB]

In Exodus 3:14 we find that the Greek Septuagint translates the Divine Name (Yahweh) as ἐγώ εἰμι (ego eimi - I AM in English). Jesus not only applies that to himself in John 8:5 ("… before Abraham was - I AM" (ἐγώ εἰμι)), but also in John 18:5 (“ἀπεκρίθησαν αὐτῷ· Ἰησοῦν τὸν Ναζωραῖον. λέγει αὐτοῖς· ἐγώ εἰμι. εἱστήκει δὲ καὶ Ἰούδας ὁ παραδιδοὺς αὐτὸν μετ᾽ αὐτῶν.” (BGT emphasis mine)). Many English translations have Jesus say, “I am he”, but the “he” is not found in the original Greek (He simply replies “I am”). Notice what happens in verse 6 when Jesus identifies himself with the Divine Name (“As soon therefore as he had said to them: I am he; they went backward, and fell to the ground.” (DRA). Again, the “he” is not in the original Greek).

As far as John 17:6, 26 or Isaiah 12:4, I would ask how, exactly, that would disprove Jesus’ claim to Divinity.

Thanks for that reference!

I’m not concerned about Jesus’ Divinity, but about His usage of the Divine Name.