Did Jesus deny divinity in John 10?

[Moses_the_Black_1]

In John 10:30, Jesus tells the Jewish crowds that “I and the Father are one.” Subsequently, the crowds the pick up stones to kill him, citing blasphemy. They say: “We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God”. (John 10:33).

Jesus responds with this: “, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are “gods”’[d]? 35 If he called them ‘gods,’ to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be set aside— 36 what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’? 37 Do not believe me unless I do the works of my Father. 38 But if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father.” 39 Again they tried to seize him, but he escaped their grasp.”
Did Jesus here say he was only “god” in the sense of the gods in Ps. 82.6? Is he saying he is only a special one of these “gods”, and not the Eternal God of the universe? Any help on this very confusing passage?

 

[ProdglArchitect]

No, in this passage he is distinguishing himself from the rest of humanity.

" ‘I have said you are “gods”’ " - refers to humanity in general.

" what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? " - Jesus referring to himself as a separate category from the aforementioned “gods.”

" 37 Do not believe me unless I do the works of my Father. 38 But if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father. ” - Jesus reaffirming his divinity, because he does the work of the Father.

 

[triumphguy]

In John 10:30, Jesus tells the Jewish crowds that “I and the Father are one.” Subsequently, the crowds the pick up stones to kill him, citing blasphemy. They say: “We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God”. (John 10:33).

Jesus responds with this: “, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are “gods”’[d]? 35 If he called them ‘gods,’ to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be set aside— 36 what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’? 37 Do not believe me unless I do the works of my Father. 38 But if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father.” 39 Again they tried to seize him, but he escaped their grasp.”
Did Jesus here say he was only “god” in the sense of the gods in Ps. 82.6? Is he saying he is only a special one of these “gods”, and not the Eternal God of the universe? Any help on this very confusing passage?

Read John Chapter 6 for the answer to this.

 

[808Catholic]

In John 10:30, Jesus tells the Jewish crowds that “I and the Father are one.” Subsequently, the crowds the pick up stones to kill him, citing blasphemy. They say: “We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God”. (John 10:33).

Jesus responds with this: “, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are “gods”’[d]? 35 If he called them ‘gods,’ to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be set aside— 36 what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’? 37 Do not believe me unless I do the works of my Father. 38 But if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father.” 39 Again they tried to seize him, but he escaped their grasp.”
Did Jesus here say he was only “god” in the sense of the gods in Ps. 82.6? Is he saying he is only a special one of these “gods”, and not the Eternal God of the universe? Any help on this very confusing passage?

I’m not sure what version of the Bible you are referencing. Below is the note on this passage from the USCCB on-line Bible:

John 10:34 "This is a reference to the judges of Israel who, since they exercised the divine prerogative to judge (Dt 1:17), were called “gods”

Jesus very clearly states He is God and this is why the Jewish people present pick up stones to stone Him to death as prescribed by the Law. They are used to holy men performing miracles and speaking for God but no one can claim to be God without being executed this way. Also, in Jewish tradition, when some one claims to be the son of someone else, he takes on all the authority and power of the father. So Jesus’ claim as the Son of God is not saying He is “less” than God the Father; He IS God the Father. This is the source of mystery of the Holy Trinity.

 

[DavidFilmer]

I’m not sure what version of the Bible you are referencing.

It’s an exact quote from the NIV, and is in line with just about every other translation on BibleHub. And it is exactly what the NAB actually says in the text.

You quoted a footnote, not a passage.

 

[mikekle]

Maybe Jesus should have caused the sky to go completely dark when this was going on, or raise himself 50ft up into the air, right in front of them? I think that would have resolved the mix up pretty quickly.

 

[808Catholic]

It’s an exact quote from the NIV, and is in line with just about every other translation on BibleHub. And it is exactly what the NAB actually says in the text.

You quoted a footnote, not a passage.

Reason I mentioned the version of the Bible you quoted from was that the USCCB on-line Bible has different verse numbers. The footnote was for a different number of verse but the verse was identical to the one you originally posted. I believe my point still stands: Jesus was suggesting others were calling themselves “gods” after the Pharisees fashion but He was pointing out He is True God.