U
unshinbop
Guest
Paul certainly taught this, but he doesn’t count for now because he is a johnny-come-lately, and it is the conduct of the earlier apostles that makes this question controversial.
In Acts 21, James and the elders are worried about Paul arriving in town, because they realize their congregation of converted Jews are still “zealous for the Law” and have heard a rumor that Paul was telling Jews abroad to abandon the customs of Moses.
Curiously, neither James nor Paul attempt to suggest that a simple speech from Paul calling the rumor false would suffice. James’s only suggested solution to quell a potential uprising is for Paul to pay the expenses of 4 others who plan to do a Nazarite vow ceremony, and if he does, then James’s converts will know the rumor is false.
Here is the problem: The “law” includes animal sacrifice as atonement for sin, Leviticus 16, and the Nazarite vow in Acts 21 involved animal sacrifice. It is very clear that James’s converted Jews see no remission of sins in the death of their Messiah. I have to wonder, what words did James use to preach the gospel to them before they converted? Did he say “Jesus died for your sins”? If so, doesn’t their zealousness to keep doing the law after converting testify that their conversion was inauthentic?
Let’s not forget that James and the elders give every sign of being worried for Paul that their converted Jews may start a riot or other violence due to Paul being in town. If this is true, it refutes those who say James and the others continued doing temple ceremonies and sacrifices merely to avoid giving offense to non-Christian Jews. If James’s description of his congregation’s potential to do violence against Paul be true, then James’s congregation is full of converts who still sincerely believe that animal sacrifice is the only way to atone for sin. I must ask, how can they seriously believe this without James or other leaders disfellowshipping them for failure to confess true doctrine? Could it be that what looks like a bunch of converts to James, are really just insincere non-Christian Jews pretending to convert to James? How else can we explain their shocking ignorance of Paul’s view of the Cross?
The point is that the ignorance of the meaning of Jesus’ death on the part of James’s original converts is so staggering that it cannot be explained by simply carping that God hadn’t fully revealed the significance of the Cross just yet, or that they were slow to change their long-standing customs. Their ignorance is so inexplicable that room is made for the theory that they continued to do animal sacrifices as atonement for sin after Jesus died because the gospel James preached, to which they converted, neither expressed nor implied that Jesus’ death was a once for all payment for their sins.
I don’t find anything immediately problematic with this last assertion, because at no time in any of the 4 gospels does Jesus ever explain that the new covenant created by his death, or the “remission of sins” created thereby, was supposed to do away with the animal sacrifce system.
In other words, I have a problem with the later portions of the NT saying Jesus’ death was a final atonemtn for sin intended to replace the animal sacrifice system (book of Hebrews), because that is not what Jesus taught and it is not the earliest belief of his original 12 disciples. Paul’s view of the Cross appears at best to a later theological development that was never taught or anticipated by Jesus and the original 12.
If then, Jesus’ death was not intended to replace the animal sacrifice system, then whatever he meant by saying his death ushered in a new covenant in his blood for the remission of sins, he was either wrong, or he didn’t mean what most people think he meant. Or…Paul’s understanding of the Cross is incorrect. At the end of the day, the shocking ignorance about the significance of the Cross on the part of James’s converts in Acts 21 is not subject to a quick “they-just-didn’t-realize-the-full-implications” or “God-had-not-yet-revealed-all-truth-about-the-Cross-at-that-time” excuse.
The reason why I think those excuses fail is based on the same argument I make against Dispensationalists: There is one passage of the gospels that prevents Paul’s later understanding from being correct, and the words allegedly come from Jesus after he rose from the dead:
I conclude that because neither James nor any of his original converts thought the animal sacrifice system was done away in Christ, then, short of a theory that James and his congregation were theological stupid (in spite of previous inspiration of the Spirit in a might way such as Acts 2), there is no possible way that Jesus could have taught this. Hence, when you tell unbelievers that Jesus died for their sins, you are preaching a Pauline heresy, not something Jesus believed about his own death.
In Acts 21, James and the elders are worried about Paul arriving in town, because they realize their congregation of converted Jews are still “zealous for the Law” and have heard a rumor that Paul was telling Jews abroad to abandon the customs of Moses.
Curiously, neither James nor Paul attempt to suggest that a simple speech from Paul calling the rumor false would suffice. James’s only suggested solution to quell a potential uprising is for Paul to pay the expenses of 4 others who plan to do a Nazarite vow ceremony, and if he does, then James’s converts will know the rumor is false.
Here is the problem: The “law” includes animal sacrifice as atonement for sin, Leviticus 16, and the Nazarite vow in Acts 21 involved animal sacrifice. It is very clear that James’s converted Jews see no remission of sins in the death of their Messiah. I have to wonder, what words did James use to preach the gospel to them before they converted? Did he say “Jesus died for your sins”? If so, doesn’t their zealousness to keep doing the law after converting testify that their conversion was inauthentic?
Let’s not forget that James and the elders give every sign of being worried for Paul that their converted Jews may start a riot or other violence due to Paul being in town. If this is true, it refutes those who say James and the others continued doing temple ceremonies and sacrifices merely to avoid giving offense to non-Christian Jews. If James’s description of his congregation’s potential to do violence against Paul be true, then James’s congregation is full of converts who still sincerely believe that animal sacrifice is the only way to atone for sin. I must ask, how can they seriously believe this without James or other leaders disfellowshipping them for failure to confess true doctrine? Could it be that what looks like a bunch of converts to James, are really just insincere non-Christian Jews pretending to convert to James? How else can we explain their shocking ignorance of Paul’s view of the Cross?
The point is that the ignorance of the meaning of Jesus’ death on the part of James’s original converts is so staggering that it cannot be explained by simply carping that God hadn’t fully revealed the significance of the Cross just yet, or that they were slow to change their long-standing customs. Their ignorance is so inexplicable that room is made for the theory that they continued to do animal sacrifices as atonement for sin after Jesus died because the gospel James preached, to which they converted, neither expressed nor implied that Jesus’ death was a once for all payment for their sins.
I don’t find anything immediately problematic with this last assertion, because at no time in any of the 4 gospels does Jesus ever explain that the new covenant created by his death, or the “remission of sins” created thereby, was supposed to do away with the animal sacrifce system.
In other words, I have a problem with the later portions of the NT saying Jesus’ death was a final atonemtn for sin intended to replace the animal sacrifice system (book of Hebrews), because that is not what Jesus taught and it is not the earliest belief of his original 12 disciples. Paul’s view of the Cross appears at best to a later theological development that was never taught or anticipated by Jesus and the original 12.
If then, Jesus’ death was not intended to replace the animal sacrifice system, then whatever he meant by saying his death ushered in a new covenant in his blood for the remission of sins, he was either wrong, or he didn’t mean what most people think he meant. Or…Paul’s understanding of the Cross is incorrect. At the end of the day, the shocking ignorance about the significance of the Cross on the part of James’s converts in Acts 21 is not subject to a quick “they-just-didn’t-realize-the-full-implications” or “God-had-not-yet-revealed-all-truth-about-the-Cross-at-that-time” excuse.
The reason why I think those excuses fail is based on the same argument I make against Dispensationalists: There is one passage of the gospels that prevents Paul’s later understanding from being correct, and the words allegedly come from Jesus after he rose from the dead:
Because Jesus never said his death was intended to replace the animal sacrifice system, whatever teaching of Jesus on his death that you convey to the world in the attempt to obey v. 20 can never include any statement that the old covenant is done away. Indeed, how could you obey v. 20 if, after Jesus died, stuff changed and now many of his pre-cross teachings are irrelevent to Gentiles?Matthew 28:19-20
19 “Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit,
20 teaching them to observe all that I commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age.”
I conclude that because neither James nor any of his original converts thought the animal sacrifice system was done away in Christ, then, short of a theory that James and his congregation were theological stupid (in spite of previous inspiration of the Spirit in a might way such as Acts 2), there is no possible way that Jesus could have taught this. Hence, when you tell unbelievers that Jesus died for their sins, you are preaching a Pauline heresy, not something Jesus believed about his own death.