R
Rightlydivide
Guest
In attempting to isolate one definition or use of overshadowing, I think it would be more helpful to examine how it is used in the Bible itself:The article says no such thing. The author is simply presenting the strength and depth of the language used that identify the overshadowing of Mary with the privilege of a husband, and thus the singularity of her relationship with God, and thus why this relationship which formed the Child in her womb prohibits any human claim for marital rights on she who is the Ark of the New Covenant. This title of the Virgin recalls another level of meaning of “overshadowing”, which, likewise, illustrates the uniqueness of the Mother and Child, i.e., the overshadowing of the tabernacle in the wilderness, this overshadowing echoing the hovering of the Spirit over the waters at Creation. Thus we have the New Creation born from the overshadowing of Mary, whose flesh is fittingly inviolate because of the One Whom she bore.
I find it telling you find the reality of the marital significance of the overshadowing of Mary distasteful while at the same time being so accepting that the womb of the chosen Mother of God would not have been inviolate
episkiazō
In its five uses, does it ever denote sexual or marital relationships outside of the time this article is contending it does?
Act 5:15 Insomuch that they brought forth the sick into the streets, and laid [them] on beds and couches, that at the least the shadow of Peter passing by might overshadow some of them.