C
ConstantLearner
Guest
I believe Mary was a lifelong virgin and the brothers and sisters of Jesus referred to are cousins or close followers. However, I then do not know what to make of Matthew 1:25: “And he knew her not till she brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.” This is from the Douay-Rheims, but all translations are similarly worded, indicating Joseph “knew” Mary after the birth of Jesus. The KJV reads: “And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.”
So, can anyone help with this? It seems to indicate Mary and Joseph had marital relations, though no mention of any children other than Jesus can be found in the Bible as far as I know.
The prophecy said that "a virgin shall conceive and bring forth a son,’ and that was accomplished whether Mary remained a virgin or not.
My personal belief is that she was always a virgin, but Matthew seems to contradict that a bit.
So, can anyone help with this? It seems to indicate Mary and Joseph had marital relations, though no mention of any children other than Jesus can be found in the Bible as far as I know.
The prophecy said that "a virgin shall conceive and bring forth a son,’ and that was accomplished whether Mary remained a virgin or not.
My personal belief is that she was always a virgin, but Matthew seems to contradict that a bit.
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