Did Jesus himself eat the bread/His body at the Last Supper?

[Tamsulosin]

Or drink the wine/His blood?
I caught myself wondering about that.
If He did, how should we interpret that?

 

[MarianD]

I think He didn’t.

*While they were eating, Jesus took bread, gave thanks and broke it, and gave it to his disciples, saying, “Take and eat; this is my body.” Then he took the cup, gave thanks and offered it to them, saying, "Drink from it, all of you.

• • Matthew 26:26-27

It states that He gave the bread and wine (which He consecrated to be His own Body and Blood) to His disciples after giving thanks, not that He ate it Himself.

Plus, after, He says

*I tell you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine from now on until that day when I drink it anew with you in my Father’s kingdom."

• • Matthew 26:29

 

[ConstantineTG]

*I tell you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine from now on until that day when I drink it anew with you in my Father’s kingdom."

• • Matthew 26:29

Jesus wasn’t referring to the wine he consecrated. There are 4 cups of wine they drink during the passover meal and Jesus stopped short of the last cup. What He consecrated is the third cup.

 

[Luke65]

*I tell you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine from now on until that day when I drink it anew with you in my Father’s kingdom."

• • Matthew 26:29

The Gospel of Mark (and Luke 22:18) makes it clearer:

“This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many,” he said to them. “I tell you the truth, I will not drink again of the fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it anew in the kingdom of God.” (Mark 14:24-25)

So Jesus definitely drank wine at the Last Supper, and this seems to imply He drank the consecrated wine. And it would seem to be fitting, since Our Lord always kept the Law of Moses, even though He didn’t need to, being already pure. So if He kept the Law of Christ, even though He didn’t to, it would be “to fulfill all righteousness” (Matthew 3:15). God bless.

 

[Nathan_Wagar]

Paul alludes to it as the cup of blessing as well, not the cup of consummation.

 

[RobbyS]

The Gospel of Mark (and Luke 22:18) makes it clearer:

“This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many,” he said to them. “I tell you the truth, I will not drink again of the fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it anew in the kingdom of God.” (Mark 14:24-25)

So Jesus definitely drank wine at the Last Supper, and this seems to imply He drank the consecrated wine. And it would seem to be fitting, since Our Lord always kept the Law of Moses, even though He didn’t need to, being already pure. So if He kept the Law of Christ, even though He didn’t to, it would be “to fulfill all righteousness” (Matthew 3:15). God bless.

Several cups are served, but he seems to have intended one “round” as signifying something new.