Did Mary Ever Sin?

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I am now trying to learn more about Catholicism before I join the Church again. I am quite perplexed on many things. One of these things is did Mary ever sin? I have no problem in believing that Mary was preserved from Original Sin. But it also comes to my mind that Adam and Eve were created without Original Sin. So did Mary choose to fall from grace as they did? Or did she remain sinless throughout her life? Answers and explainations would be greatly appreciated. God speed.
 
nope

How could Jesus ever let Satan have dominion over His very own mother?
 
The Catholic Church teachings is that Mary never sinned in her life time. As for original sin. Mary was preseverd from sin at her conception. We are all saved by the merits of Christ, including Mary. There is one difference between all Christians and Mary, her (Mary) salvation from sin was more perfect then ours. While we are freed of original sin at our Baptism, Mary was preserved from it when she was conceived.

I hope this helps and maybe someone with a bit more knowledge on the Marian Doctrines can be of more assistance.
 
There is a VERY good article in the CA Online Library on this topic and here is an excerpt and link.
The Immaculate Conception
It’s important to understand what the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception is and what it is not. Some people think the term refers to Christ’s conception in Mary’s womb without the intervention of a human father; but that is the Virgin Birth. Others think the Immaculate Conception means Mary was conceived “by the power of the Holy Spirit,” in the way Jesus was, but that, too, is incorrect. The Immaculate Conception means that Mary, whose conception was brought about the normal way, was conceived without original sin or its stain—that’s what “immaculate” means: without stain. The essence of original sin consists in the deprivation of sanctifying grace, and its stain is a corrupt nature. Mary was preserved from these defects by God’s grace; from the first instant of her existence she was in the state of sanctifying grace and was free from the corrupt nature original sin brings.
When discussing the Immaculate Conception, an implicit reference may be found in the angel’s greeting to Mary. The angel Gabriel said, “Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you” (Luke 1:28). The phrase “full of grace” is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. It therefore expresses a characteristic quality of Mary.
The traditional translation, “full of grace,” is better than the one found in many recent versions of the New Testament, which give something along the lines of “highly favored daughter.” Mary was indeed a highly favored daughter of God, but the Greek implies more than that (and it never mentions the word for “daughter”). The grace given to Mary is at once permanent and of a unique kind. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning “to fill or endow with grace.” Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the past but with continuing effects in the present. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit. In fact, Catholics hold, it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence.
LINK
Check it out.
Pax tecum,
 
nope

How could Jesus ever let Satan have dominion over His very own mother?
I really like this argument. Allow me to add a small bit to it.

Remember the book of Job? In it, Satan comes to God and says, “Does Job fear God for nothing? Have you not put a hedge about him and his house and all that he has, on every side?” And God said, “Behold, all that he has is in your power,” and Satan goes to assail Job. Note that Satan basically had to ask permission to test Job; he couldn’t do it while God guarded Job.

If Satan has to ask permission before tempting or testing a person (as seems reasonable, especially in light of Paul’s statement that God does not allow us to be tempted beyond what we can handle), then it seems entirely reasonable that God would absolutely refuse even to allow Satan to tempt His own mother.

Jeremy
 
I am confused a little. Was Mary sinless because of her own choice, besides being without original sin? Or was it that she could not ever sin because God protected her from that. And if so, doesn’t that take away her free will? Once it was explained to me the Jesus saved Mary from sin differently than the rest of us in that if sin was a hole in the ground, when we fall into sin Jesus helps us out of the hole, but I’m Mary’s case he catches her before she can ever fall in. I don’t know if this is an accurate description. But if it is, it confuses me why we would honor Mary for accepting Gods plan, if she was prevented from sinning she could never on her own choose to no accept God.
 
I am now trying to learn more about Catholicism before I join the Church again. I am quite perplexed on many things. One of these things is did Mary ever sin? I have no problem in believing that Mary was preserved from Original Sin. But it also comes to my mind that Adam and Eve were created without Original Sin. So did Mary choose to fall from grace as they did? Or did she remain sinless throughout her life? Answers and explainations would be greatly appreciated. God speed.
No, the Church teaches that Mary never sinned. Just as Christ was the new Adam, and unlike the first Adam Christ did not fail, so Mary was the new Eve, and unlike the first Eve she did not fail. That does not, of course, make her somehow equivalent to Christ.

If you want to know why God chose for the earthly mother of His Son a woman who was untouched by sin, the strongest explanation I am aware of is that it was only fitting that Jesus, in uniting divine nature with human nature, would derive both of those natures from perfect, uncorrupted sources. Of course the source of His divine nature, The Father, is perfect and uncorrupted. And it was fitting that the source of His human nature, Mary, was also perfect and uncorrupted (in terms of sin that is, not omniscience, omnipotence or any other divine attribute). It simply would have been not suitable for Jesus to unite a perfect divine nature with a corrupt human nature. Rather, it is right and proper that Jesus, the mediator between God and man, should be born from the perfection of both.
 
I am confused a little. Was Mary sinless because of her own choice, besides being without original sin? Or was it that she could not ever sin because God protected her from that. And if so, doesn’t that take away her free will? Once it was explained to me the Jesus saved Mary from sin differently than the rest of us in that if sin was a hole in the ground, when we fall into sin Jesus helps us out of the hole, but I’m Mary’s case he catches her before she can ever fall in. I don’t know if this is an accurate description. But if it is, it confuses me why we would honor Mary for accepting Gods plan, if she was prevented from sinning she could never on her own choose to no accept God.
Without question, she could have chosen to sin. And she chose not to, for her entire life. It is that lifetime of choosing God over herself that causes us to honor her above all the saints, and causes God to honor her above all the saints as well (I think I’m safe in saying that last part)…
 
I am confused a little. Was Mary sinless because of her own choice, besides being without original sin?
God didn’t suspend Mary’s free will, so I’d say it was a combination of the grace of God and her own choice.
Or was it that she could not ever sin because God protected her from that.
Even given extra grace by God, free humans can still choose to sin, even Mary.
Once it was explained to me the Jesus saved Mary from sin differently than the rest of us in that if sin was a hole in the ground, when we fall into sin Jesus helps us out of the hole, but I’m Mary’s case he catches her before she can ever fall in. I don’t know if this is an accurate description.
That’s a good analogy, up to a point.
But if it is, it confuses me why we would honor Mary for accepting Gods plan, if she was prevented from sinning she could never on her own choose to no accept God.
Instead of picturing Jesus grabbing the back of Mary’s dress as she’s just about to step into the hole, imagine her hold Jesus’ hand as she walks around the hole.

Mary’s free will was not suspended, she still chose not to sin.

Jeremy
 
I am confused a little. Was Mary sinless because of her own choice, besides being without original sin? Or was it that she could not ever sin because God protected her from that. And if so, doesn’t that take away her free will?
If someone always freely chooses to do what’s right, isn’t that worthy of applause and imitation?

– Mark L. Chance.
 
Without question, she could have chosen to sin. And she chose not to, for her entire life. It is that lifetime of choosing God over herself that causes us to honor her above all the saints, and causes God to honor her above all the saints as well (I think I’m safe in saying that last part)…
Yes, Mary was not tainted with any form of concupiscence–that is she never had an attraction to sin or desired to sin. That did not take away her free will, however. If she had wanted to sin, she could have, but her nature wasn’t spoiled, as are ours, so she did not sin–a positive action and decision on her part made from an uncorrupted nature.
 
Mary was protected in a very special way by ONE action of God in particular. Because Original Sin never so much as stained her soul, she received the protection that no other human creatures have had since Adam and Eve (I am, of course, not including Jesus here).

The preternatural gifts, lost in the fall, are:
infused knowledge,
absence of concupiscence, and
freedom from death and sickness.

The supernatural gifts, restored in baptism, are:
indwelling of God in our souls through grace, and
the theological virtues (faith, hope, and charity).
(The Effects of Original Sin - This Rock)

Mary’s Free Will was not taken away from her but, unlike Adam & Eve, she was obedient to God and her very obedience and love for God rendered her immune to temptation. Her purity protected her and God knew this very the very beginning, that is why He chose her.

Mary received a high acclaim from Jesus when a woman praised her because she was His mother (Lk 11:28). “Blessed is the womb that bore you and the breasts at which you nursed,” only to have Jesus respond, “Rather, blessed are those who hear the word of God and keep it.”

Rather than putting Mary down, He was saying that she was blessed for those reasons.

Mary’s soul overflowed with the Light of God’s Grace, there was simply no room for sin and her close proximity to Jesus, God made Man would have given her even more supernatural graces.

God offers all of us gifts of His Love, it is just that not everyone accepts them.
 
Instead of picturing Jesus grabbing the back of Mary’s dress as she’s just about to step into the hole, imagine her hold Jesus’ hand as she walks around the hole.

Mary’s free will was not suspended, she still chose not to sin.

Jeremy
Or, how about this (just to take Jeremy’s analogy a little further)… Imagine Jesus is standing there offering his hand to everyone walking up to the edge of the hole (sin). Some of the people ignore his hand and jump right in. Others fall in, not recognizing that He is there to help keep them from falling. Still others fall in and only see Him when it’s too late. Mary, however, consistently avoided falling in the hole by grabbing onto Jesus every time.
 
Yes, Mary was not tainted with any form of concupiscence–that is she never had an attraction to sin or desired to sin. That did not take away her free will, however. If she had wanted to sin, she could have, but her nature wasn’t spoiled, as are ours, so she did not sin–a positive action and decision on her part made from an uncorrupted nature.
Right, and it’s just worth pointing out that Adam and Eve possessed the same uncorrupted nature, and yet they chose to sin. So the possibility of sin is quite real, even without concupiscence. And perhaps even moreso in the case of Mary who lived her life among sinners – not to say that the serpent couldn’t be tempting enough all by himself.
 
Then, why does not God protect all mankind from sinning in the first place?

:confused:
 
Daniel, He does. Jesus has been there from the first, “In the beginning was the Word.” But people have chosen to sin. God could not ‘protect’ us from the desire to sin unless He made us without the will to sin. But then we wouldn’t be people and we wouldn’t be free. He is perfect, and omniscent. There must be something more valuable in being ‘free’–even free to sin–or He would not have made us that way.

We can’t see it–but we aren’t God.

Mary STILL could have chosen to sin, just as Adam and Eve did. So God didn’t ‘cheat’ by making Mary ‘perfect’ and thus be perceived of as being ‘mean’ for not doing it to the rest of us.
 
Then, why does not God protect all mankind from sinning in the first place?

:confused:
What do you mean by “protect”? Do you mean “prevent”? That would be violating our free will, and nothing is more clear than that God will not violate our free will, for it is only with a free will that we can truly love Him.

Or do you mean “help against”? God does that, by offering uncounted graces to all who would accept them. I know, without question, that I would be a much worse sinner if I rejected all of God’s graces (as opposed to rejecting some of them, which I must honestly acknowledge that I am guilty of).
 
Our priest said (from the pulpit) recently. “The devil cannot MAKE anybody sin. It is ALWAYS a choice.” Our Blessed Mother must surely have been tempted - even Christ was. She CHOSE to remain sinless. The more frequently she made that choice the greater was her strength to resist the next tempation. It works the same for all Catholics.
 
Sounds like an Apostolic Tradition, but I have to ask, is this what the Church has always believed? By looking at the Church Fathers, there is obviously no agreement between them as to whether Mary was sinless her whole life.

Ambrose

Ambrose believed that original sin was communicated by means of sexual intercourse. Thus, Jesus avoided original sin by being born of a virgin. Mary, however, would have original sin:

“He was man in the flesh, according to His human nature, that He might be recognized, but in power was above man, that He might not be recognized, so He has our flesh, but has not the failings of this flesh. For He was not begotten, as is every man, by intercourse between male and female, but born of the Holy Spirit and of the Virgin; He received a stainless body, which not only no sins polluted, but which neither the generation nor the conception had been stained by any admixture of defilement. For we men are all born under sin, and our very origin is in evil, as we read in the words of David: ‘For lo, I was conceived in wickedness, and in sin did my mother bring me forth.’” (On Repentance, 1:3:12-13)

And if any Catholic wants to argue that Ambrose’s phrases “every man” and “all” are referring to all people except Mary, Ambrose tells us elsewhere that being immaculately conceived is unique to Christ:

“For the Lord Jesus alone of those who are born of woman is holy, inasmuch as He experienced not the contact of earthly corruption, by reason of the novelty of His immaculate birth; nay, He repelled it by His heavenly majesty.” (cited in Augustine, On the Grace of Christ, and on Original Sin, 2:47)
 
Augustine

Augustine is often misrepresented as having believed in the sinlessness of Mary. The Anglican scholar J.N.D. Kelly explains:

“he [Augustine] did not hold (as has sometimes been alleged) that she [Mary] was born exempt from all taint of original sin (the later doctrine of the immaculate conception). Julian of Eclanum maintained this as a clinching argument in his onslaught on the whole idea of original sin, but Augustine’s rejoinder was that Mary had indeed been born subject to original sin like all other human beings, but had been delivered from its effects ‘by the grace of rebirth’.” (Early Christian Doctrines [San Francisco, California: HarperCollins Publishers, 1978], p. 497)

Augustine wrote the following about Christ being the only post-Adamic human conceived without original sin. He approvingly quotes another church father, Ambrose. Notice that one of his quotes of Ambrose specifically mentions Mary, so it can’t be argued that they didn’t have Mary in mind at the time that they wrote. After quoting Ambrose, Augustine comments that Ambrose’s view is the view held by the universal church of his day, a view supported by “the catholic faith”:

“And now that we are about to bring this book to a conclusion, we think it proper to do on this subject of Original Sin what we did before in our treatise On Grace, --adduce in evidence against the injurious talk of these persons that servant of God, the Archbishop Ambrose, whose faith is proclaimed by Pelagius to be the most perfect among the writers of the Latin Church; for grace is more especially honoured in doing away with original sin. In the work which the saintly Ambrose wrote, Concerning the Resurrection, he says: ‘I fell in Adam, in Adam was I expelled from Paradise, in Adam I died; and He does not recall me unless He has found me in Adam,–so as that, as I am obnoxious to the guilt of sin in him, and subject to death, I may be also justified in Christ.’ Then, again, writing against the Novatians, he says: ‘We men are all of us born in sin; our very origin is in sin; as you may read when David says, ‘Behold, I was shapen in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me.’ Hence it is that Paul’s flesh is ‘a body of death;’ even as he says himself, ‘Who shall deliver me from the body of this death?’ Christ’s flesh, however, has condemned sin, which He experienced not by being born, and which byy dying He crucified, that in our flesh there might be justification through grace, where previously there was impurity through sin.’ The same holy man also, in his Exposition Isaiah, speaking of Christ, says: ‘Therefore as man He was tried in all things, and in the likeness of men He endured all things; but as born of the Spirit, He was free from sin. For every man is a liar, and no one but God alone is without sin. It is therefore an observed and settled fact, that no man born of a man and a woman, that is, by means of their bodily union, is seen to be free from sin. Whosoever, indeed, is free from sin, is free also from a conception and birth of this kind.’ Moreover, when expounding the Gospel according to Luke, he says: ‘It was no cohabitation with a husband which opened the secrets of the Virgin’s womb; rather was it the Holy Ghost which infused immaculate seed into her unviolated womb. For the Lord Jesus alone of those who are born of woman is holy, inasmuch as He experienced not the contact of earthly corruption, by reason of the novelty of His immaculate birth; nay, He repelled it by His heavenly majesty.’ These words, however, of the man of God are contradicted by Pelagius, notwithstanding all his commendation of his author, when he himself declares that ‘we are procreated, as without virtue, so without vice.’ What remains, then, but that Pelagius should condemn and renounce this error of his; or else be sorry that he has quoted Ambrose in the way he has? Inasmuch, however, as the blessed Ambrose, catholic bishop as he is, has expressed himself in the above-quoted passages in accordance with the catholic faith, it follows that Pelagius, along with his disciple Coelestius, was justly condemned by the authority of the catholic Church for having turned aside from the true way of faith, since he repented not for having bestowed commendation on Ambrose, and for having at the same time entertained opinions in opposition to him.” (On the Grace of Christ, and on Original Sin, 2:47-48)
 
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