Did Mary experience labor pains?

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michael777:
What a fool you are, and how stupid to suggest those who protest against lairs, say that Mary is God
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Insults, arrogance, and judjementalism is not Christ-like.
 
Okay… I gotta ask: Why does it matter if she had any labor pain, mild pain, or normal horrible pain???

Would it somehow change our view of her as the Mother of Our Lord? Would she be deemed as less worthy?

Personally, I don’t think it matters, but I’m leaning towards some pain being involved - mostly because it seems that the greater sacrifices in life do involve pain for most people.
 
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MonicaC:
Wait a minute who is saying that Mary is God? God created Mary for one purpose and that was to be the first human Tabernical. No one is saying that she is God (the only people I ever hear say this is protestents). We are saying that God created her without sin so that she can be the mother of God, because God could not have been present in sin. Yes, Mary needed a redeemer just like all of man kind. Mary was a perfect example of how one serves our Lord, she always said yes to God and there for God favored her.
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Who redeemed mankind?
 
Michael, there are several errors in your understanding, I would like to address one at a time. .
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michael777:
if mary was sinless she would have done just that!! But it would mean Mary was God and perfect like God.
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Absolutely not. Being created sinless, without original sin, is the way God created Adam and Eve. It did NOT make Adam or Eve God, nor perfect like God. If we look at Scripture we find Elizabeth pregnant with John, when the Holy Spirit filled her and the child lept in her womb. John was filled with the Holy Spirit in the womb of his mother Elizabeth, so he too was born free from original sin, again, this does not make him God or perfect like God. This is an error to think being sinless equates to equal to God.
 
Elizabeth pregnant with John, when the Holy Spirit filled her and the child lept in her womb. John was filled with the Holy Spirit in the womb of his mother Elizabeth,

The above could not be so according to you.
Because God could not be in Sin.

For
as you wrote
“We are saying that God created her without sin so that she can be the mother of God, because God could not have been present in sin.”
How then was he present in the Prophets and present in Elizabeths womb and in John?
 
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michael777:
niether is stupidity
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It seems that the same person who taught you theology, also taught you how to spell.

God forgive me for that one, but I just couldn’t help myself.
 
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michael777:
Who redeemed mankind?
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I would suggest to others not to allow Mr. 777 to hijack this topic, which was about Mary’s labor pains. If Mr. 777 is confused as to who redeemed mankind, he is more than free to start a new thread and ask away.
 
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michael777:
Who redeemed mankind?
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Michael you are so full of hate. I really pray that the holy sprite will enter your heart and soften it. Yes I believe that Jesus is the the redeemer of mankind, he is my Lord and I will always try to live a life of goodness and seek to be like Mary and always say yes to God.

So you believe Mary was sin?

No Like I had said before I believe that Mary was born without sin.

You do not know the Power of God.

Yes I do know the Power of God I have seen it many times in my life.

What a fool you are, and how stupid to suggest those who protest against lairs, say that Mary is God.

I am sorry for all the pain that you most have experienced to have to feel like you can insult me, but I will continue to pray for you.

God Bless.
 
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michael777:
The verse in revelation you are refering to did not exclusively refer to Mary as the woman it refered to ISREAL AND THE TO THE CHURCH.

Mary was in both i agree but The woman depicted was Isreal and the holy nation and its offspring THE CHURCH through FAITH IN IT’S messaih JESUS CHRIST, for we are of the Holy nation OF ISREAL AND A ROYAL PREISTHOOD through faith in the Messaih Jesus Christ NOT through faith in Mary.!!

Michael.
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Michael, I agree it does not “exclusively” refer to Mary, but reading rev 12 it is painfully obvious it refers to Mary and it ALSO refers to Isreal, and also to His Catholic Church. To disavow the reference to Mary is being closed hearted. And yes I just coined the phrase… lol
 
and also to His Catholic Church

Make that his church
full stop
and he knows his own.
 
It seems that the same person who taught you theology, also taught you how to spell.

God never took my english class.

I can spell it is just my typing is the problem.
 
I think you should think on about this all of you.

quote from one on you:

Elizabeth pregnant with John, when the Holy Spirit filled her and the child lept in her womb. John was filled with the Holy Spirit in the womb of his mother Elizabeth,

The above could not be so according to all of you.Because God could not be in Sin.

For
as you wrote
“We are saying that God created her without sin so that she can be the mother of God, because God could not have been present in sin.”
How then was he present in the Prophets and present in Elizabeths womb and in John?
 
Michael,
I really do desire dialogue with you. However, if you persist in taking threads off topic and insulting the person instead of discussing the content, you will get banned.

Please, I know it is difficult to not to respond to people at times, but why not try a simple, I disagree with a biblical reference as to why?

This topic is Did Mary experience Labor pains?

God Bless,
Maria
 
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MonicaC:
Actually there really wasn’t an exception to the judgement God passed upon Eve since God did say that there will be a women who well be the new Eve. This means that Mary was born like Eve without origanial sin.
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I understand what you are saying, but the passage in Genesis that prophecies the Redeemer says nothing about his Mother being born with or without original sin. It’s not that explicit, is it?

Of course, we believe that she was born without original sin because the Church sees the witness of that teaching within Sacred Tradition of which the Bible is an integral part.

Just trying to clarify my point and to help lurkers and seekers understand what we are saying to each other. 😉
 
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Della:
I understand what you are saying, but the passage in Genesis that prophecies the Redeemer says nothing about his Mother being born with or without original sin. It’s not that explicit, is it?
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It did say that she would be at enmity with the devil, which certainly implies a certain amount of sinlessness. But not explicit, true.
 
posted by Michael
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For
as you wrote
“We are saying that God created her without sin so that she can be the mother of God, because God could not have been present in sin.”
How then was he present in the Prophets and present in Elizabeths womb and in John?
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God incarnate, in the form of Jesus Christ, could not be that intimate, carried in a vessel full of sin. God was spiritually present with the others, but with Mary, He was physically present.

God Bless,
Maria
 
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michael777:
Elizabeth pregnant with John, when the Holy Spirit filled her and the child leapt in her womb. John was filled with the Holy Spirit in the womb of his mother Elizabeth,
The above could not be so according to you.
Because God could not be in Sin.
For as you wrote “We are saying that God created her without sin so that she can be the mother of God, because God could not have been present in sin.”
How then was he present in the Prophets and present in Elizabeth’s womb and in John?
Click to expand...
Not so, Elizabeth was filled with the Holy Spirit also, as in baptism, when you are filled with the Holy Spirit you are freed of you sin, or as you say “sinless” so, John was not in a sinful creature at that moment. Elizabeth of course was not considered “without” sin, she therefore could have sinned afterward. John also was NOT God. The difference (one of the many) between Mary and Elizabeth is that Elizabeth continued to sin, Mary could not, since she held the blessed Jesus in her womb. Mary could not have sinned because Jesus is God, it isn’t something we say she was so great for, and the reason was Jesus, not Mary.
 
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